Question

A 42-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents to the family practice office for evaluation of new onset thrombocytopenia. She denies any recent illness and does not take any medications or supplements. She denies the development of skin lesions, neurologic or constitutional symptoms. CBC with differential, peripheral smear, BMP, PT/INR and aPTT are otherwise within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis

Answer 1

It could be a mental illness, maybe depression. Look into further details on symptoms. A tip l will give is to relate to the patient so she can open up about her symptoms. Most people are pretty guarded.