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True [87]
3 years ago
13

F(5)= 12 for a geometric sequence that is defined recursively by the formula f(n) = 0.3• f(n-1), where n is an integer and n>

0. Find f(7)Round your answer to the nearest hundreth
Mathematics
2 answers:
aksik [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Morgarella [4.7K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1.8

Step-by-step explanation:

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Predict the number of roses in a garden with 16 sunflowers if there are 3 sunflowers in a garden with 81 roses.
Over [174]
Set up a proportion.
3 sunflowers/ 81 roses= 16 sunflowers/xroses

Cross multiply:
81*16=1296
1296/3= 432

Final answer: 432 roses
6 0
3 years ago
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SOMEONE PLEASE HELP ME ASAP PLEASE!!!!​
ikadub [295]
In order to do this you list them from least to greatest. 14, 24, 29, etc.
3 0
3 years ago
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What are the values that satisfy the trigonometric equation for: 0 ≤ q ≤ 2Π ?
bagirrra123 [75]
Answer: 0, π, 2π

Nevertheless, that is not an option. I see two possibilities: 1) the options are misswirtten, 2) the domain is not well defined.

If the domain were 0 ≤ θ < 2π, then 2π were excluded of the domain ant the answer would be 0, π.

Explanation:

1) The first solution, θ = 0 is trivial:

sin (0) - tan (0) = 0

0 - 0 = 0

2) For other solutions, work the expression:

sin(θ) + tan (-θ) = 0 ← given

sin (θ) - tan(θ) = 0 ← tan (-θ) = tan(θ)

sin(θ) - sin (θ) / cos(θ) = 0 ← tan(θ) = sin(θ) / cos(θ)

sin (θ) [1 - 1/cos(θ)] = 0 ← common factor sin(θ)

⇒ Any of the two factors can be 0

⇒ sin (θ) = 0 or (1 - 1 / cos(θ) = 0,

sin(θ) = 0 ⇒ θ = 0, π, 2π

1 - 1/cos(θ) = 0 ⇒ 1/cos(θ) = 1 ⇒ cos(θ) = 1 ⇒ θ = 0, 2π

⇒ Solutions are 0, π, and 2π

In fact if you test with any of those values the equation is checked. The only way to exclude one of those solutions is changing the domain.
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
9. Tobias ran 3 miles. How many millimeters did he run? (1 mile = 1,610 meters)
Gekata [30.6K]

Welcome to Brainly! I'm happy to help!

We see that there are 1,610 meters in a mile. However, we are looking for millimeters, not meters. But, knowing the meters will help us out.

A millimeter is a very small measurement. There are 1,000 millimeters in 1 meter. A meter is much larger. So, if we want to convert 1,610 meters to millimeters, there are going to be way more millimeters because they are so minute.

This means that we will have to multiply. We know that there are 1,000 millimeters in 1 meter, so if we multiply our meters by 1,000 (which is basically just adding 3 zeros), we will get the number of millimeters in one mile!

1,610×1,000=1,610,000 (one million six hundred and ten thousand!)

Don't forget that we are looking for 3 miles though, so we can take the number of millimeters in one mile and multiply by three.

1,610,000×3=4,830,000 (four million eight hundred and thirty thousand!)

So, Tobias ran 4,830,000 millimeters!

Have a wonderful day and keep on learning! :D

7 0
3 years ago
Plz help me do this ​
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

(i) 16 (ii) 29 (iii) 76 (iv) 23

Step-by-step explanation:

i just plugged everything into the equations.

3 0
3 years ago
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