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3 years ago

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The gross domestic product (GDP) of France is about $2.00 × 10 12 12 , and the GDP of Tuvalu is about $4.00 × 10 7 7 . How many

times larger is the GDP of France than the GDP of Tuvalu?

1 answer:

algol [13]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

France's GDP is 50 000 times larger than Tuvalu's GDP.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of France = $2.0 x $10^{12}$

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Tuvalu = $4.0 x $10^{7}$

To determine the number of times in which the GDP of France is greater than that of Tuvalu, divide the GDP of France by the GDP of Tuvalu.

$\frac{2.0*10^{12} }{4.0*10^{7} }$ = $\frac{2000000000000}{40000000}$

= $\frac{200000}{4}$

= 50000

Therefore, France's GDP is 50 000 times larger than Tuvalu's GDP.

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RideAnS [48]

Answer:

$\text{C. }60$

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Question from image</u>:

"The digits 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 can be formed to arrange 120 different numbers. How many of these numbers will have the digits 1 and 2 in increasing order? For example, 14352 and 51234 are two such numbers."

Let's start by taking a look with the number 1. There are four possible places 1 could be, because there needs to be space for the 2 after it.

Checkmarks mark where the 1 can be, the <em>x</em> marks where it cannot be.

$\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{X}$

Let's start with the first position:

$\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{\#}\:\underline{\#}\:\underline{\#}\:\underline{\#}$

There are four places the 2 can be. For each of these four places, we can arrange the remaining 3 digits in $3!=6$ ways. Therefore, there are $4\cdot 6=\boxed{24}$ possible numbers when 1 is the first digit of the number.

Continue this process with the remaining possible positions for 1.

Second position:

$\underline{X}\underline{\checkmark}\:\underline{\#}\:\underline{\#}\:\underline{\#}$

There are three places the 2 can be, since the 2 must be behind the 1. For each of these three places, the remaining 3 digits can be arranged in $3!=6$ ways. Therefore, there are $3\cdot 6=\boxed{18}$ possible numbers when 1 is the second digit of the number.

The pattern continues. Next there will be 2 places to place the 2. For each of these, there are $3!=6$ ways to rearrange the remaining 3 digits for a total of $2\cdot 6=\boxed{12}$ possible numbers when 1 is the third digit of the number.

Lastly, when 1 is the fourth digit of the number, there is only 1 place the 2 can be. For this one place, there are still $3!=6$ ways to rearrange the remaining three numbers. Therefore, there are $1\cdot 6=\boxed{6}$ possible numbers when 1 is the fourth digit of the number.

Thus, there are $24+18+12+6=\boxed{60}$ numbers that will have the digits 1 and 2 in increasing order, from a set of 120 five-digit numbers created by the digits 1 through 5, where no digit may be repeated.

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3 years ago

-12 = 4x + 1<br> solve<br> algebra

Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

$x=-\frac{13}{4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$-12=4x+1\\4x=-12-1\\x=-\frac{13}{4}$

4 0

3 years ago

) One year, professional sports players salaries averaged $1.5 million with a standard deviation of $0.9 million. Suppose a samp

Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

Probability that the average salary of the 400 players exceeded $1.1 million is 0.99999.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that one year, professional sports players salaries averaged $1.5 million with a standard deviation of $0.9 million.

Suppose a sample of 400 major league players was taken.

<em>Let </em> $\bar X$ <em> = sample average salary</em>

The z-score probability distribution for sample mean is given by;

Z = $\frac{ \bar X -\mu}{{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }} }$ ~ N(0,1)

where, $\mu$ = mean salary = $1.5 million

$\sigma$ = standard deviation = $0.9 million

n = sample of players = 400

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is away from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value (area) associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X.

So, probability that the average salary of the 400 players exceeded $1.1 million is given by = P( $\bar X$ > $1.1 million)

P( $\bar X$ > $1.1 million) = P( $\frac{ \bar X -\mu}{{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }} }$ > $\frac{ 1.1-1.5}{{\frac{0.9}{\sqrt{400} } }} }$ ) = P(Z > -8.89) = P(Z < 8.89)

<em>Now, in the z table the maximum value of which probability area is given is for critical value of x = 4.40 as 0.99999. So, we can assume that the above probability also has an area of 0.99999 or nearly close to 1.</em>

Therefore, probability that the average salary of the 400 players exceeded $1.1 million is 0.99999.

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3 years ago

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motikmotik

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1 1/2= 1 3/6

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1 3/6

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————-

7 5/6

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2 years ago