Answer:
a. Cash for $180
Explanation:
The receipts from the petty cash fund indicate that the owner of the box made purchases adding up to $177. Therefore that money is no longer part of the fund. Since the fund holds $200 and currently only has $20 then to replenish the account the journal entry would need to include a credit to cash for $180 ... ($200-$20=$180)
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<h2>In the short run, these workers are <u>variable</u> inputs, and the ovens are <u>Fixed</u> inputs.</h2>
Explanation:
By analyzing the information, we can understand that, Megan can grow slowly and steadily because the constraint here is that, Megan has so many people to work but they are students and he cannot buy more than 2 oven's at present considering his financial background and the size of the kitchen.
So the wise work is that, he keeps changing the number of workers every time but the number of oven to be used every time is only 2.
So workers are variable (changing) and ovens are fixed.
Answer:
The bad debts expense for 2015 would be $ 28,000
Explanation:
The balance of the allowance for doubtful account should be equal to the amount estimated to be uncollectible based on the ageing analysis
Estimated uncollectible account $ 31,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts prior to adjustment <u>$ 3,000</u>
Bad debts expense for the year to be recorded <u> $ 28,000</u>
The accounting entry to record this is as follows:
Bad debts expense Debit $ 28,000
Allowance for uncollectible accounts Credit $ 28,000
Answer:
A buyer would be willing to pay at most $24,000.
Explanation:
There is a 40% chance of getting low quality cars.
Value of high quality car is $30,000.
Value of low quality car is $15,000.
Price of car that buyer will be willing to pay
=40% of lower quality+60% of higher quality
=40% of $15,000+60% of $30,000
=0.4*15,000+0.6*30,000
=$6,000+$18,000
=$24,000
So, the buyers will be willing to pay a maximum value of $24,000.
Answer:
The answer is 4.26 percent
Explanation:
This is a semiannual paying coupon.
N(Number of periods) = 40 periods ( 20 years x 2)
I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ???
PV(present value or market price) = $950
PMT( coupon payment) = $40 ( [8 percent÷ 2] x $1,000)
FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.
We are using a Financial calculator for this.
N= 40; PMT = 40; FV= $1,000; PV= -950 CPT I/Y = 4.26
Therefore, the bond's yield-to-maturity is 4.26 percent
