Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:






Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
Given the differential (d/dx)(cos−1(x)), to find the equivalent formula we will differentiate the inverse function using chain rule as shown below;
let;


Therefore;

Since x = cos y from the above substitute;

Hence,
gives the required proof
Is it number 6 or 8 cause I'm little bit confused
I honestly don’t know good day