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sergeinik [125]
3 years ago
10

Prove the formula for (d/dx)(cos−1(x)) by the same method as for (d/dx)(sin−1(x)). Let y = cos−1(x). Then cos(y) = and 0 ≤ y ≤ π

⇒ −sin(y) dy dx = 1 ⇒
Mathematics
1 answer:
gtnhenbr [62]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

\frac{d(cos^{-1}x )}{dx} = \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^2} }

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the differential (d/dx)(cos−1(x)), to find the equivalent formula we will differentiate the inverse function using chain rule as shown below;

let;

y = cos^{-1} x \\\\taking \ cos\ of\ both\ sides\\\\cosy = cos(cos^{-1} x)\\\\cosy = x\\\\x = cosy\\\\\frac{dx}{dy} = -siny\\

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-1}{sin y}  \\\\from\ trigonometry\ identity,\ sin^{2} x+cos^{2}x = 1\\sinx = \sqrt{1-cos^{2} x}

Therefore;

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-cos^{2}y } }

Since x = cos y from the above substitute;

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}} }

Hence, \frac{d(cos^{-1}x )}{dx} = \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^2} } gives the required proof

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