Answer:
Date Account titles and explanation Debit Credit
1-1-21 Bond interest payable $46,000
Cash $46,000
(To record payment of interest)
1-1-21 Bond payable $155,000
Loss on redemption bond $15,500
(155,000/100*10)
Cash $170,500
(To record bond redemption)
31-1-21 Interest expenses $36,450
Bond interest expenses $36,450
(560,000-155,000)*9%
(Adjusting entry to accrue the interest on the remaining)
Answer:
The answer is: Buyers will bid the asset's price down until it equals the present value of income.
Explanation:
As the current asset price is greater than the present value of income, it is overpriced.
So, seller is much willing to sell at this price, however, buyers does not want to buy asset at this price as they only want to purchase it at the price equals to the present value of its income.
So, Buyers will bid the asset's price down until it equals the present value of income which is the level they are willing to buy and also at which the seller is willing to sell also.
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Answer:
Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000
Real overhead= 38,000
Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH
Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated
Answer:
1) 18.4%
2) 27.20%
Explanation:
Solution
To get the Expected return for your fund we have to the percentage of Treasury bill and risk premium. That is,
T-bill rate + risk premium = 6.4% + 12% = 18.4%
Standard deviation of client's overall portfolio = 0.80 × 34% = 27.20%
