Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:


The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.
The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:


0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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X(x-1)(x^2+4)=(x^2-x)(x^2+4)=(x^4)+(4x^2)-(x^3)-(4x)=(x^4)-x(x^2+4)+(4x^2)
Answer:
$100
Step-by-step explanation:
thank me later
Answer:
80%
Step-by-step explanation:
because 7200 / 300 equals 24 and 24 / 30 equals .8 so its 80% and if you want to check the answer you take 30 * .8 OR 80% and it gives you 24
Answer:
<em>Correct answer:</em>
<em>A. I and II</em>
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Step-by-step explanation:
First of all, let us have a look at the steps of finding inverse of a function.
1. Replace y with x and x with y.
2. Solve for y.
3. Replace y with 
Given that:

Now, let us find inverse of each option one by one.
I. y = x, a(x) = x
Replacing y with and x with y:
x = y
x =
=
Hence, I is true.
II. 
Replacing y with and x with y:

=
Hence, II is true.
III. 
Replacing y with and x with y:
Hence, III is not true.
IV. 
Replacing y with and x with y:
Hence, IV is not true.
<em>Correct answer:</em>
<em>A. I and II</em>
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