Using probability concepts, it is found that:
- The theoretical probability of spinning an odd number is equal to 3/5 = 0.6.
- The experimental probability of spinning an odd number is equal to 1/2 = 0.5.
- Therefore, the theoretical probability of spinning an odd number is greater than the experimental probability of spinning an odd number.
<h3>What is a probability?</h3>
A probability is given by the <u>number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes</u>.
A theoretical probability is calculated without considering experiments, and we have that 3 out of the 5 numbers(1,3,5) and are odd, hence the theoretical probability is given by:
pT = 3/5 = 0.6.
For an experimental probability, we consider the experiments. Of the 6 spins, 3 resulted in an odd number, hence the experimental probability is given by:
p = 3/6 = 1/2 = 0.5.
Therefore, the theoretical probability of spinning an odd number is greater than the experimental probability of spinning an odd number.
More can be learned about probabilities at brainly.com/question/14398287
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Answer: 5 x ?
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
(a is size of side of triangle)
the perimeter of equilateral triangle =3a
or, 36=3a
Thus, a = 13cm
area of equilateral triangle
=√3/4*(a^2 )
=√3/4*(13^2)
=73cm^2
Answer:
$138,345
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a compound decline problem, which will be solve by the compound formula:
Where
F is the future value (value of house at 2030, 14 years from 2016)
P is the present value ($245,000)
r is the rate of decline, in decimal (r = 4% = 4/100 = 0.04)
t is the time in years (2016 to 2030 is 14 years, so t = 14)
We substitute the known values and find F:
Rounding it up, it will be worth around $138,345 at 2030
Answer:
766.87 is how much he is paid in all.
Step-by-step explanation:
2.5% of 75 is 1.875. 1.875 times 9 is 16.875. 75 times ten is 750. add together to get the whole.
