Answer:
Existing Equity = 20 million
Existing debt = 60 million
Total capital = 20 million + 60 million = 80 million
a. Given company issued 30 million of equity to retire debt
Equity after raise = $20 million + $30 million = $50 million
Debt = $60 million - $30 million = $30 million
Total capital size remain at $80 million
Capital structure, Equity = $50 million/$80 million = 0.625 = 62.50%
Debt = (1-0.625) = 0.375 = 37.50%
b. The market would welcome the new issue as the risk of the firm would be reduced.
Answer:
Please find the detailed answer as follows:
Explanation:
a) Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead cost / Estimated total units in the allocation based
Predetermined overhead rate = 600,000 / 500,000 = 1.2 perunit
b) Total fixed cost spending variance = Actual fixed overhead cost - Estimated overhead cost
= 599,400 - 600,000
= 600 (F) Favourable
c) Total fixed cost volume variance = Actual fixed overheads - Estimated fixed overheads
Actual fixed overheads = Estimated fixed overhead rate * Actual units produced
= 1.2 * 508,000 = $609,600
Total fixed cost volume variance =$ 609,600 - $600,000 = $9600 (F) Favourable
Answer and Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
1) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) for this economy is 0.75 as it denotes the spending of the household and saving of 0.25 and the spending multiplier for this economy is
= Spending Multiplier(M)
= 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
= 1 ÷ 1-0.75
= 1 ÷ 0.25
= 4
2). Decrease in government purchases will lead to a decrease in income, generating an initial change in consumption
= -Amount of Government Decrease Purchases by × MPC
= -$250 billion × 0.75
= -$187.5 billion
3). Decrease income again, causing a second change in consumption
= Amount Decrease in Government Purchases × MPC
= -$187.5 billion × 0.75
= $140.6 billion
4).Total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending
= Amount of Government Decrease Purchases by × Spending Multiplier(M)
= $250 × 4
= $1,000 billion
= $1 trillion
As we can see that the income falls by $1000 billion in the end, so AD shifts to the left by the size of $1 trillion
In the question the graph is missing. Kindly find the attachment for both of question and answer
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Current assets are considered short-term assets because they generally are convertible to cash within a firm's fiscal year, and are the resources that a company needs to run its day-to-day operations and pay its current expenses. ...
Answer:
Allocated MOH= $432,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Predetermined overhead rate of $8.00 per machine-hour
Actual machine-hours worked= 54,000 hours
<u>To calculate the allocated overhead, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 8*54,000
Allocated MOH= $432,000
