Answer:
a. Debit Depreciation expense $6,400
Credit Accumulated depreciation $6,400
b. $33,600
Explanation:
Depreciation is the systematic allocation of cost to an asset. It is given as
Depreciation = (Cost - salvage value)/estimated life
When accumulated over time, it is known as accumulated depreciation which is deducted from the cost to get the carrying amount of the asset.
Depreciation
= (100000 - 10000)/6
=$15,000
Between 2015 and start of 2019 is 4 years hence
accumulated depreciation at start of 2019
= $15,000 × 4
= $60,000
Net book value = $100,000 - $60,000
= $40,000
If the asset life is to be extended by 3 years, the remaining useful life changes from 2 to 5 years.
New depreciation rate
= (40,000 - 8000)/5
= $6,400
To record this for 2019,
Debit Depreciation expense $6,400
Credit Accumulated depreciation $6,400
The book value of the equipment at the end of 2019
= $40,000 - $6,400
= $33,600
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Answer:
hedonic Theory of Wages:
Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.
Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.
Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.
Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:
- The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.
- The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.
- Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.
On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:
Isoprofit Curve:
As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.
my brain went blank thats hard ima ask my teacher.
Answer: Price of stock at year end =$53
Explanation:
we first compute the Expected rate of return using the CAPM FORMULAE that
Expected return =risk-free rate + Beta ( Market return - risk free rate)
Expected return=6% + 1.2 ( 16%-6%)
Expected return= 0.06 + 1.2 (10%)
Expected return=0.06+ 0.12
Expected return=0.18
Using the formulae Po= D1 / R-g to find the growth rate
Where Po= current price of stock at $50
D1= Dividend at $6 at end of year
R = Expected return = 0.18
50= 6/ 0.18-g
50(0.18-g) =6
9-50g=6
50g=9-6
g= 3/50
g=0.06 = 6%
Now that we have gotten the growth rate and expected return, we can now determine the price the investors are expected to sell the stock at the end of year.
Price of stock = D( 1-g) / R-g
= 6( 1+0.06)/ 0.18 -0.06
=6+0.36/0.12
=6.36/0.12= $53