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Sophie [7]
3 years ago
6

Are the rational numbers (-1/2) and (1/-2) equivalent?

Mathematics
2 answers:
spayn [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The negative sign was simply moved to either the numerator or denominator. Either way the number is still a negative one half.

jok3333 [9.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

-1/2 is simple negative half of one.

when you take 1 divided by -2, you are divinding by 2 but laso turning it negative thus giving you -1/2

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4 years ago
The graph of f(t) = 6.2" shows the value of a rare coin in year t. What is the
seraphim [82]

Answer:

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3 years ago
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ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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Read 2 more answers
The function y varies directly as x, and y = 81 when x = 45. What is the value of x when y = 18?
NikAS [45]

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