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PilotLPTM [1.2K]
3 years ago
15

Freya, a post office clerk, uses 2 yards, 1 foot, 7 inches of twine to wrap each damaged carton she repairs. She has to repair 1

7 cartons today. How much twine will she need?
Mathematics
2 answers:
sattari [20]3 years ago
5 0
Per damaged carton the clerk uses 7 feet 7 inches of twine.
or
91 inched total.
multiply 91 times the amount of cartons needed (17) your answer is 1547
Gemiola [76]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 42.9722 yard twin she needs to wrap 17 cartoons.

Explanation:

Since, according to the question, Freya uses twin to wrap a damaged cartoon= 2 yards 1 foot 7 inches=  7\frac{7}{12} foot ( because 1 yard =3 foot)= 91/12 foot

So, if she wants to repair the 17 cartoons then the length of twin she will need= 17×91/12 foot=1547/12 foot= 128.916666667 foot = 42.9722 yard.

Thus, She needs 42.9722 yard wrap for repairing 17 cartoons.

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3a b2 b3 4b2 4 5a what is the answer
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Is there a piece of paper that comes with the questions? Or do I just pick one? If there is a piece of paper attached, please add it to your question. Thank you!
7 0
3 years ago
Mr.smith has 238 eggs in the warehouse. He collected all another 122 eggs from his chickens yesterday. As he arranged all the eg
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

238 + 122 – 28 = 332

There were 332 unbroken eggs left.

332 – 126 = 206

There were 206 white eggs left

5 0
2 years ago
I need help for both!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!​
horrorfan [7]
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4 0
3 years ago
Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
Can you please help me and explain this in a way that I can understand ​
melomori [17]

Answer:

180 Degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

So, m∠1 = m∠2 = m∠3 means that these angles are the same degrees

The question asks whats the degree of m∠CDG so first we find those points. In this image, it looks like points C,D and G form a line which is also equivalant to 180.

I hope you understand! If not, i'll try to elaborate more

3 0
3 years ago
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