Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that 
Sample of 6:
This means that 
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

In which




77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Answer:
The following shape is not a rectangle, but a square. I know this because the length and width are the same amount of square inch(feet, what ever the square counts for on your graph.) and rectangles width are typically longer than their length. However a square shares the same length and width,
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A biologist is interested in the average wingspan of hawks in the United States.
and
A researcher is interested in the average birth weight of newborn babies born in the United States.
Answer:
12 y
Step-by-step explanation:
π. x².y = ⅓. π (½x) ².h
=> eliminate π,
x²y = ⅓. ¼x².h
=> eliminate x²,
y = 1/12 h
h = 12 y
so, height of the cone = 12 y
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
The multiplicative inverse of 1/2 is 2. To determine the multiplicative inverse of a number, we use the following rule: The multiplicative inverse...