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AlladinOne [14]
3 years ago
5

Feldpausch Corporation has provided the following data from its activity-based costing system: Activity Cost Pool Total Cost Tot

al Activity Assembly $1,137,36084,000 machine-hoursProcessing orders $28,4791,100 ordersInspection $97,1551,270 inspection-hours. The company makes 470 units of product W26B a year, requiring a total of 660 machine-hours, 50 orders, and 40 inspection-hours per year. The product's direct materials cost is $40.30 per unit and its direct labor cost is $42.22 per unit. The product sells for $118.00 per unit. According to the activity-based costing system, the product margin for product W26B is: A. $16,675.60B. $3,384.70C. $4,679.20D. $6,444.70
Business
2 answers:
const2013 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is B) $3384,70

Explanation:

First we need to split the 3 main cost drivers into

Machine Hours - $1137360 / 84000 = 13,54

Processing Hours - $28479 / 1100 = 25,89

Inspection Hours - $97155 / 1270 = 76,5

Now we use the actual hours for the 470 units of W26B

470 units require 660 machine hours ( 660 x 13,54 ) + 40 inspection hours ( 40 x 76,5 ) + 50 orders ( 50 x 25,89 )

The total costs excluding the materials and labor cost are = $13290,9

Now we include the material and labor costs

Material Cost = 40,30 x 470 =  $18941

Labors Costs = 42,22 x 470 =  $19843,4

Total costs = $52075,3

Product sales = 118 x 470 = $55460

The margin = $3384,70

Therefore the answer is C.) 3384,70 as proven by the calculation above.

Kamila [148]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option C. $3,384.7

Explanation:

The cost pool per cost driver can be calculated as under:

Cost Pool per Cost Driver = Total Coot Pool / Respective T.Cost Driver

Here

Total cost pool                     Respective Total Cost Driver

 $1,137,360                                  84,000 Machine Hours

 $28,479                                      1,100 Orders

 $97,155                                       1,270 Inspection Hours

Now,

Assembly cost per machine hour = $1,137,360 / 84,000 = $13.54 per Machine hour

Processing cost per order =  $28,479 / 1,100 = $25.89 per Orders

Inspection cost per inspection hour = $97,155 / 1,270 = $76.5 per inspection hour

Now for 470 units W26B, total machine hours worked are 660 machine hours, 50 orders and 40 inspection hours.

So:

Total ABC per 470 units of W26B = 660 * $13.54   +  50 * $25.89 + 40 * $76.5 = $13,291 per 470 units

Total ABC per unit W26B = $13,291 / 470 = $28.27 per unit

Total Product Cost = Prime Cost per unit  + Total ABC per unit

By putting values, we have:

Prime cost per unit = $40.3 + $42.22 = $82.52

Now

Total Product cost = $28.27 + $82.52 = $110.79

Which means product margin is $7.21 per unit and total margin for the year is $3389 ($7.21 * 470 units) which is close to $3,384.7 and the difference is because of rounding figures. So the right option is C.

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Complete the balance sheet and sales information in the table that follows for J. White
deff fn [24]

Answer:

Sales $600,000

Cost of Goods Sold $450,000

Cash $28,000

Accounts payable $110,000

Accounts receivable $60,000

Inventory $120,000

Common Stock $140,000

Fixed Asset $192,000

Total Liabilities and equity $400,000

Explanation:

1.To compute the missing amount of sales, we must look for the data given that has something to do with sales. And the two data given that will give us the hint are the Asset turnover and the total asset.

ASSET TURNOVER = Net Sales / Total Asset

1.5 = Net Sales * $400,000

Net Sales = 1.5 * $400,000

Net Sales = $600,000

To check if the answer is correct:

$600,000 / $400,000 = 1.5 <em>which is equal to the data given</em>

<em />

2. The Sales has been computed above and Gross profit margin on sales is present, these are the hint we needed to compute the Cost of goods sold.

Sales  100%

<u>Less: Gross profit margin on sales 25%</u>

Cost of goods sold ratio on sales 75%

Therefore, $600,000 x 75% (ratio on sales) = $450,000

3.ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE

It is impossible to compute the cash based on the data given without the accounts receivable. So, let's compute the accounts receivable beforehand.

The additional hint that we have is the Days sales outstanding (based on 365-day year).

  • Days sales outstanding = Accounts receivable / (Annual credit sales / 365 days)
  • 36.5 days = Accounts receivable / ($600,000 / 365)
  • Accounts receivable = 36.5 * ($600,000 / 365)
  • Accounts receivable = $60,000

<em>To check our answer:</em>

<em>$60,000 / ($600,000 / 365)</em>

<em>$60,000 / 1,643.84</em>

<em>36.5 days</em>

<em />

4. ACCOUNTS PAYABLE

Next missing item that we will compute is the accounts payable. The hint that we have that is related to the computation of accounts payable is the Liability to asset ratio.

FORMULA :

Liability to asset ratio = Total Liabilities / Total Assets

40% = Total Liabilities / $400,000

Total Liabilities = 40% * $400,000

Total liabilities = $160,000

To Check:

<em>$160,000 / $400,000 = 40% which is equal to the data given</em>

<em>Next Step, Compute accounts payable (the only current liability account in the given partial income statement). Long term debt is the only non-current liability on the data given, which means it is the only account that is included in the total liability of $160,000.</em>

<em />

So, $160,000 less $50,000 = $110,000 (accounts payable)

5. CASH

We can now compute the cash based on the accounts already computed above. The additional hint that we have is the quick ratio. Quick ratio is the quotient of Cash & cash equivalent plus Marketable securities (which is not present in the data given, therefore ignore) plus the accounts receivable over the current liability.

Computation:

0.80 = (Cash + Marketable security + Accounts receivable) / current liability

0.80 = (Cash + Accounts receivable) / $110,000

Cash + Accounts receivable = 0.80 * $110,000

Cash + Accounts receivable = 88,000

Cash + $60,000 = $88,000

Cash = $88,000 - $60,000

Cash = $28,000

6. INVENTORY

To compute the inventory, we need the inventory turn-over hint.

Inventory turn-over = Cost of goods sold / Average inventory

3.75 = $450,000 / Ave inventory

Average inventory = $450,000 / 3.75

Average inventory = $120,000

to check:

<em>$450,000 / $120,000 = 3.75 which is equal to the data given</em>

<em />

7. COMMON STOCK

Total asset = Liabilities + Equity

$400,000 = $160,000 +?

$400,000 - $160,000 = $240,000

Equity is composed of common stock and retained earnings. Therefore, $240,000 - $100,000 (Retained earnings) = $140,000 (common stock)

8. FIXED ASSET

It is the only asset account that is missing after we computed cash, accounts receivable and inventory. Therefore total assets less current assets equals fixed assets.

  • $400,000 - ($28,000 + $60,000 + $120,000)
  • $400,000 - $208,000
  • $192,000 (fixed assets)

9. TOTAL LIABILITIES AND EQUITY

Current liability + Non-current liability + Common stock + Retained earnings

$110,000 + $50,000 + $140,000 + $100,000

$400,000

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4 years ago
When the allowance method is used to account for uncollectible accounts, Bad Debts Expense is debited when A. a customer’s accou
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

Option D. management estimates the amount of uncollectibles

Explanation:

When the company estimates the bad debts, reflects it in the balance sheet through a Debit entry in the Bad Debt Expenses againts the asset account Allowance for Doubtful Accounts as a Credit.

When the bad debt are confirm as uncollectible the loss is reflected in the Account Receivable as a Credit with the correspondent debit entry in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.    

7 0
3 years ago
To construct the consumer price index, the bureau of labor statistics must:
Afina-wow [57]
Find out what people buy and then proceed to survey how the prices of those items change 
7 0
4 years ago
An American executive is going on a business trip to Japan and England. Before she departs, she purchases $10,000 worth of Japan
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is $907.76.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

1¥ = 82.54$

1£ = 132.03¥

Convert pounds to us dollars= £ ÷ $ = £132.03 ÷ $82.54

= 1.60$ ÷ £

Mean, 1£ = 1.6$

She has £567.35 .

After converting the pound into the dollar, she will receive = £567.35 × $1.60

= $907.76

Hence, she receive $907.76 if she sells the pounds.

3 0
3 years ago
Ivan is an operations manager of a chain of amusement parks. Before she determines a new location for a park, she must forecast
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

because Ivan's decisions will impact the substantial cost of the business.

Explanation:

An operations manager is responsible for managing organizational resources and applying them effectively to meet organizational goals and objectives. It is therefore necessary that Ivan as the operations manager of a network of amusement parks, before determining a new location for a park, he must anticipate the customer demand and determine the adequate capacity of the site for the construction of the park. that their decisions will directly impact the substantial cost of the business, that is, the planning must meet the needs specified by the customer so that the cost is compatible with the budget provided for by an effective planning for that business.

Organizational resources must be allocated efficiently and effectively so that there is compliance with the objectives and goals of a business and for it to be well positioned and successful in the market.

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