Answer:
$63,852
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a) PV of payments is
= $23,500 × (1.07^30 - 1) ÷ (0.07 × 1.07^30)
= $2,91,612
b) The Loan PV of payments is $3,00,000
c) And, the Balloon payment required is
= (Borrowed amount - loan PV payments) × (1 + rate of interest)^number of years
= ($300,000 - $291,612) × 1.07^30
= $63,852
Answer:
The value of the firm according to M&M Proposition I with taxes is $513,824.62
Explanation:
Value of firm = [EBIT x (1-Tax) / Equity Cost] + [Debt x Tax rate]
Value of firm = 82000 x (1-24%) / 13% + 143500 x 24%
Value of firm = 62320 / 0.13 + 143500 x 0.24
Value of firm = 479,384.62 + 34,440
Value of firm = $513,824.62
Answer:
<u><em>FALSE</em></u>
Explanation:
Remember, total asset turnover is calculated using a ratio that measures how the management was able to use its assets to efficiently increase sales. Usually the total asset turnover is gotten by dividing a<em> company's sales </em>by its <em>total assets.</em>
<em />
To increase sales, management should <em>continue</em> to use its existing assets (not making purchase of any new asset), and at the same time reducing their purchases of inventory.
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entry to record the factory labor cost is shown below:
Work in progress ($2,060 + $1,710 + $3,130 + $3,520 + $2,150 + $1,410 + $9,540) $23,520
Factory Overhead $10,980
To wages payable $34,500
(to record the factory labor cost)
Here work in process and factory overhead is debited as it increased the assets and expenses and credited the wages payable as it also increased the liabilities
Selling price = $4.50
Copies sold = $1 million
Fixed costs = $1 million
Unit variable costs = $0.50 per magazine
Sales = $4,500,000
Fixed costs = $1 million
Variable costs = $500,000
Revenue = Sales - fixed costs - variable costs
Revenue = $4,500,000 - $1,000,000 - $500,000
Revenue = $3,000,000