Answer: the answer is B!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.9562
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial probability is mathematically expressed as:
![P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3Dx%29%3D%7Bn%5Cchoose%20x%7Dp%5Ex%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D)
Given that p=0.18, n=5 , is calculated as:
![P(X\leq 2)=P(0)+P(1)+P(2)\\\\={5\choose 0}0.18^0(1-0.18)^5+{5\choose 1}0.18^1(1-0.18)^4+{5\choose 2}0.18^2(1-0.18)^3\\\\=0.3707+0.4069+0.1786\\\\=0.9562](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3DP%280%29%2BP%281%29%2BP%282%29%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%7B5%5Cchoose%200%7D0.18%5E0%281-0.18%29%5E5%2B%7B5%5Cchoose%201%7D0.18%5E1%281-0.18%29%5E4%2B%7B5%5Cchoose%202%7D0.18%5E2%281-0.18%29%5E3%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D0.3707%2B0.4069%2B0.1786%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D0.9562)
Hence, the probability of no more than 2 successes in 5 trials is 0.9562
2^5 + (4 + 3 + 1) = 40
((5 x 3) + (4 + 1)) x 2 = 40
Answer:-1
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the value of -8-(-7)
-8+7
=-1