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goblinko [34]
2 years ago
7

What is the solution to the inequality n-6≥-2​

Mathematics
1 answer:
trapecia [35]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

N> or equal to 4

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 6 from -2 which is 4 then you divide by N which is 1.

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Triangle ABC A(-3,1) B(1,3) C(2,-4) . Move point C so that the triangle becomes right angle. Is there a methods apart from guess
Alex777 [14]
Draw a cartesian graph and draw the points in , then see where c should be to get a right angled triangle
7 0
3 years ago
-6-5[-4-(6+12)]+(-5)
Luden [163]

Answer:

99

Step-by-step explanation:

-6-5[-4-(6+12)]+(-5)

Following PEMDAS

We work the parentheses from the inside out

-6-5[-4-(18)]+(-5)

-6-5[-22]+(-5)

Now we multiply

-6+110 -5

Now we add and subtract from left to right

104 -5

99

6 0
3 years ago
suppose a triangle has two sides of length 2 and 3 and that the angle between these two sides is 60. what is the length of the t
arlik [135]

Answer:

  √7 ≈ 2.646

Step-by-step explanation:

The law of cosines is applicable. It tells you ...

  c² = a² + b² - 2ab·cos(C) . . . . . where a, b, c are triangle side lengths, and angle C is opposite side c.

Filling in the given information, you have ...

  c² = 2² + 3² - 2·2·3·cos(60°) = 4 + 9 - 12·(1/2) = 7

  c = √7 ≈ 2.646

The length of the third side is √7, about 2.646 units.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let X1 and X2 be two random variables following Binomial distribution Bin(n1,p) and Bin(n2,p), respectively. Assume that X1 and
ryzh [129]

Answer:

a) X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p)

b)

P(X1+X2 = 1 | X2 = 0) =  np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

P(X1 + X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

Step-by-step explanation:

Since both variables are independent but they have the same probability parameter, you can interpret that like if the experiment that models each try in both variables is the same. When you sum both random variables toguether, what you obtain as a result is the total amount of success in n1+n2 tries of the same experiment, thus X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p).

b)

Note that, if X2 = k, then X1+X2 = 1 is equivalent to X1 = 1-k. Since X1 and X2 are independent, then P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = K) = P(X1=1-k|X2=k) = P(X1 = 1-k).

If k = 0, then this probability is equal to P(X1 = 1) = np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

If k = 1, then it is equal to P(X1 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

Thus,

P(X1+X2 = 1) = P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) * P(X2=1) + P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 0) * P(X2 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

4 0
3 years ago
A.) it has no reflectional symmetry
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

D.) It has rotational symmetry with an angle of rotation of 90 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

i) the shape shown in the figure has reflectional symmetry with four lines of symmetry. There are four lines of symmetry such that each line when drawn divides the shape into two exact halves such that if each half were too be folded across the line of symmetry it would produce the other half exactly.

Therefore Option A.) and Option B.) are not true

ii) It has  point symmetry which means if the shape is rotated by 180 degrees the shape does not change. Therefore Option C.) is not true.

iii) the shape has rotational symmetry because if the shape is rotated though any between 0 degrees and 360 degrees the shape appears to be unchanged.

Therefore the correct options are

D.) It has rotational symmetry with an angle of rotation of 90 degrees.

5 0
3 years ago
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