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aalyn [17]
3 years ago
10

For a non-current asset to be classified as held-for-sale the asset must be: In saleable condition Converted to cash through use

Highly possible to be sold Planned to be sold within two years
Business
1 answer:
stepan [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is it must be highly possible to be sold.

Explanation:

For a non current asset to be classified as held-for-sale, the following must be satisfied:

1. The asset must be available for immediate sale in its present state(condition) and location.

2. The asset's sale is expected to be completed within a year(12 months) as 'held for sale'

3. The sale of the asset must be highly probable(through management's commitment to the sale of the asset and the existence of active marketing for the asset)

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CA5-5 WRITING (Cash Flow Analysis) The partner in charge of the Kappeler Corporation audit comes by your desk and leaves a lette
zvonat [6]

Answer:

Explanation statement of cash flow for the year ended December 31.2017

Cash flow from operating activities

Net income                                              100,000

Add back depreciation          10,000

Add back amortization              1,000

Add back loss on asset sales   5,000

Increase in account receivable(40,000)

Increase in inventory                 (35,000)

Decrease in accounts payable (41,000)   (100,000)

Net cash from operating activities                  0

Cash flow from investing activities

Sales of land                                  25,000

Purchase of equipment                (100,000)

Purchase of Land                          (200,000)

Net cash from investing activities                     (275,000)

Cash from financing activities

Payment of dividends                    (10,000)

Redemption of bonds                    (100,000)

Bet cash from financing activities                       (110,000)

Net decrease in Cash                                         ( 385,000)    

Cash balance in January 1, 2017                         400,000

Cash balance in December 31 , 2017                    15,000

<u>Workings</u>

1)

The disparity between the net income and the cash floe are as a result loss of cash to operating activities as a result of  cash tied down to increase in receivable and inventory and also to an increase in payable leading to an overall cash generated by operating activities of 0

Moreover , a larger portion (300,000) of the opening cash balance(400,000) for the year was used in acquiring land and equipment and also 100,000 used in the redemption of bond. , even though this reduced the interest expense and improve equity , yet it was a big blow to the cash flow.

2)

The importance of cash flow is that it helps to analyse and monitor cash movement and cash available for the purpose of business activities towards liquidity and long term solvency.

3)

Renewable sources of cash flow are generated from the company's operating activities as the cash used for the financing and operating activities are generated from this medium.

4)

Suggestion to improve cash flow for Kappler are

  1. Reduce the level of inventory held
  2. Negotiate with the account payable for a longer trade payable payment period
  3. Reduce the trade receivable collection period
  4. Payment of dividends and redemption of bonds van be suspended till alter date when adequate cash is available
  5. it can also negotiate for external sources of financing

       

4 0
3 years ago
Several years ago the Haverford Company sold a $1,000 par value bond that now has 25 years to maturity and an 8.00% annual coupo
kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

5.4%

Explanation:

Several years ago the Haverford Company sold a $1,000 par value bond that now has 25 years to maturity and an 8.00% annual coupon that is paid quarterly. The bond currently sells for $900.90, and the company’s tax rate is 40%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation

Face value of bond = coupon amount / interest rate

1000 = 80 / 8%

Therefore 900.9 = 80 / revised interest rate

multiply both sides by the 'revised interest rate

revised interest rate x 900.9 = 80

Hence, revised interest rate = 80  / 900.9 = 9%

Secondly if the company’s tax rate is 40%, the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation = kd (1 - t)

where:

kd = Cost of debt

t = tax rate

Therefore cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation = 9% (1-0.4) = 5.4%

4 0
3 years ago
Big Dom’s Pawn Shop charges an interest rate of 27.5 percent per month on loans to its customers. Like all lenders, Big Dom must
lidiya [134]

Answer:

APR is 330% and EAR is 1745.53%

Explanation:

Given:

Monthly interest rate = 27.5%

APR or annual percentage rate = 27.5×12 = 330%

So, Big Dom should report an APR of 330% to customers.

EAR or effective annual rate = (1+\frac{APR}{m}) ^{m}-1

Here,

APR is 330% and m is 12

330÷12 = 27.5%

substituting the value in the above formula:

EAR = 1.275^{12}-1

        = 17.4553 or 1745.53%

3 0
3 years ago
You want to invest in a project in Canada. The project has an initial cost of C$828,000 and is expected to produce cash inflows
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

C$24,650

Explanation:

initial cost C$828,000

net cash flows for years 1, 2 and 3 C$355,000

discount rate 12%

the net present value in C$ = C$355,000/1.12 + C$355,000/1.12² + C$355,000/1.12³ - C$828,000 = C$316,964 + C$283,004 + C$252,682 -  C$828,000 = C$24,650

Since we are asked to determine the NPV in Canadian dollars, all we need to do is carry out the same calculations as if they were any other currency. We do not need to make any adjustments due to the exchange rate between US dollars and Canadian dollars.

8 0
4 years ago
Cullumber Company provides the following information about its defined benefit pension plan for the year 2017. Service cost $ 90
Llana [10]

Answer:

$102,080

Explanation:

Given that,

Service cost = $90,500

Interest rate = 9 %

Expected return on plan assets = $62,800

Prior service cost amortization = $10,300

Projected benefit obligation at January 1, 2017 = $712,900

Pension expense for the year 2017:

= Service cost + Interest cost - Expected return on plan assets + Prior service cost amortization

= $90,500 + ($712,900 × 9%) - $62,800 +  $10,300

= $90,500 + $64,080 - $62,800 +  $10,300

= $102,080

8 0
3 years ago
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