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bezimeni [28]
3 years ago
11

The explanation for a downsloping aggregate demand curve differs from the explanation for the downsloping demand curve for a sin

gle product because multiple choice 2 a downsloping, single-product demand curve assumes constant prices such that changes in income cause a substitution of a now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed. a downsloping aggregate demand curve assumes constant money income such that a lower price causes a substitution of the now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed. a downsloping aggregate demand curve assumes constant prices such that changes in income cause a substitution of a now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed. a downsloping, single-product demand curve assumes constant money income such that a lower price causes a substitution of the now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed.
Business
1 answer:
Lisa [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

single-product demand curve assumes constant money income such that a lower price causes a substitution of the now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed.

Explanation:

When the aggregate demand curve i.e. downward sloping would be different to the demand curve for the single product i.e. also downward sloping is due to as the single product demand curve would assume that the income would be constant in such a way the less price would lead a substitution that the product is not expensive at all

So the above would be the reason  

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Answer:

a. Finance Bank

Explanation:

According to Statute of Fraud, the agreement must be in writing to be within the statute and enforceable.  The oral contracts are usually enforceable but the transfer of land needs to be in writing to be enforceable according to law of Statute of Fraud. If the contract is in writing it would be adequate to be enforceable. While the contract with bank must have some written form which will make it enforceable contract by the finance bank.

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3 years ago
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The prepaid insurance account had a beginning balance of $6,600 and was debited for $2,300 for premiums paid during the year. Jo
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Explanation:

The adjusting entry is as follows

Insurance expense A/c Dr  $4,800

           To Prepaid insurance A/c  $4,800

(Being the insurance expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Beginning balance + debited amount - unexpired insurance amount

= $6,600 + $2,300 - $4,100

= $4,800

So while preparing the adjusting entry, we debited the insurance expense account and credited the prepaid insurance account

8 0
3 years ago
Flanders Company purchased an asset on January 1, 2021 for $60,000. The asset has an estimated salvage value of $3,000. Its esti
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Answer:

$14,250

Explanation:

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Accumulated dep. at December 31, 2022 = $7,125 * 2

Accumulated dep. at December 31, 2022 = $14,250

So, the balance in accumulated depreciation using the straight-line method at December 31, 2022 is $14,250.

7 0
3 years ago
When should you include your GPA on your résumé?
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At the end of the resume
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Travka [436]

Answer:

To mitigate damages

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When a a tenant breaches the terms of a real estate agreement, the landlord must come in to get another tenant to occupy the space.

He is avoiding a situation where the property is to be left unoccupied for a period of time.

Mitigating damages is a way of reducing further loss when one party breaches a contract.

In the given scenario if a tenant moves out of leased premises before the term of the lease expires, the landlord is required to make a reasonable attempt to lease the property to another party.

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3 years ago
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