Answer:
a) $14,600.
Explanation:
The computation of the company total assets are shown below:
= Cash balance + supplies balance + equipment balance
where,
Cash balance = investment amount + borrowed amount - paid amount for equipment
= $6,200 + $3,200 - $2,120
= $7,280
And, the other item values would remain the same
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $7,280 + $1,120 + $6,200
= $14,600
The correct answer is choice b - the percentage of receivables basis.
When an accountant is calculating the bad debts expense they will take into account the balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Account when they are calculating on the percentage of sales basis.
Answer:
$4,424
Explanation:
Calculation for her employer's after-tax cost of providing the health insurance
Using this formula
After-tax cost =Annually employer's cost of health insurance -(=Annually employer's cost of health insurance*Marginal tax rate)
Let plug in the formula
After-tax cost =$5,600- ($5,600 × 21%)
After-tax cost =$5,600- $1,176
After-tax cost =$4,424
Therefore her employer's after-tax cost of providing the health insurance is $4,424
Answer:
19.50%
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
For Stock R
= 3% + 2.5 × (13% - 3%)
= 3% + 2.5 × 10%
= 3% + 25%
= 28.00%
For Stock S
= 3% + 0.55 × (13% - 3%)
= 3% + 0.55 × 10%
= 3% + 5.5%
= 8.50%
The difference would be
= 28% - 8.5%
= 19.50%
Answer: Over the limit fee
Explanation: This is because since she did not pay the 75 dollars the previous month it rolls over to this month in which she has already spent 180 dollars and her limit is 200 dollars so adding 75 to that 180 dollars would be over the limit, so she would have to pay a fee.
