3 years ago

Which non-English speaking country had much more territory in the 1700s than it has today?

2 answers:

8 0

Mexico was one of the countries that had more territory in the 1700s than it has today many states such as Texas California Arizona New Mexico Colorado Nevada and Utah Used to belong to Mexico

galina1969 [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Spain, Mexico

Explanation:

Two thirds of what is now the United States was at one time under an official ... the prior sovereign in those territories (Spain, Mexico) or as a recognition of large ... Spanish is the most popular "foreign" (as in non-English) language taught in the ... language of more than 22 countries and international organizations and the.

You might be interested in

Epigrams

Alchen [17]

I think the answer is c. contemplative

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Prepare a 1-2 page (300-500 word) report that discusses the history and effects of tropical storm / hurricane ETA. Where did it

lakkis [162]

the guy/girl above me is right

4 0

3 years ago

Even if they felt a law was unjust, good US citizens would not participate in a peaceful public protest. Please select the best

gavmur [86]

Answer:

The correct answer would be F (false)

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which of the following best explains the U.S. motivation for entering the

Vsevolod [243]

I think it is a but I’m not 100% sure

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The theory of Laissez-Faire economics was used during the late 1800s to..

mixas84 [53]

1 is correct. Laissez-Faire is the theory of no government intervention in trade. In the late 1800s there were a lot of wealthy big businesses, mainly corporations, that were causing the ruin of smaller ones. People who opposed big business called for government regulation of it. The supporters of big business attempted to justify it using Laissez-Faire.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers