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Yakvenalex [24]
3 years ago
7

Diamond Company has three product lines, A, B, and C. The following financial information is available:

Business
1 answer:
const2013 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

e. Increase by $4,500.

Explanation:

<u>Analysis of the effect of discontinuing Product Line C</u>

Income :

Rent Income                                                    $6,000

Savings : Fixed Costs - Avoidable                 $3,000

Total Income                                                   $9,000

Costs :

Opportunity Cost - Contribution Margin       $4,500

Total Costs                                                      $4,500

Net Income (Loss)                                           $4,500

therefore,

By discontinuing Product Line C, operating income for the company will likely  Increase by $4,500

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Amarillo Company experienced the following events during its first accounting period. (1) Purchased $5,000 of inventory on accou
Alik [6]

Answer:

$4,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cash to be required to settle the liability is shown below:

= Purchase value of inventory - returned inventory which was purchased

= $5,000 - $1,000

= $4,000

It is a net purchase plus it is the cash required to settle the liability

There is no discount applied in the question as dates are not given so we ignored it.

4 0
3 years ago
The variable that is observed during an experiment is called what type of variable (1 point)
Vilka [71]
Capital markets liability called
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Colgate-Palmolive Company has just paid an annual dividend of . Analysts are predicting dividends to grow by per year over the n
denis23 [38]

The amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today

<u>Given Information</u>

Current dividend (D0) = $1.59

   

Dividend payments for next five years includes:

D1 = 1.59 +0.18

D1 = 1.77

   

D2 = 1.77 +0.18

D2 = 1.95

D3 = 1.95 +0.18

D3 = 2.13

D4 = 2.13 +0.18

D4 =2.31

D5 = 2.31 +0.18

D5 =2.49

Year  Cash Flow         PVF at 8.1%        Present value

1            1.77                0.92506938        1.637372803    

2           1.95                0.855753358      1.668719048

3           2.13                0.791631229        1.686174517    

4           2.31                0.73231381           1.691644901    

5           2.49               0.677441082        <u>1.686828295</u>

Present value of Dividends                   <u>8.3707</u>

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = D5 x (1+g)/(Ke-g))      

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = 2.49(1+0.061)/(0.081-0.061)    

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = $132.0945

Given that g=6.1%, ke=8.1%      

PV of remaining dividends in year = 0 = PV of the remaining dividends in year 5* 1/(1+0.081)^5

= 132.0945 * 1/(1+0.081)^5    

= $89.48624      

As per dividend-discount model, Colgate stock should sell for​ today = PV of Dividends till 5th year + PV of Remaining Dividend at t=0

= $89.48624 + $8.3707    

= $97.8531

= $97.85

Hence, the amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today.

Read more about dividend

<em>brainly.com/question/3161471</em>

8 0
2 years ago
Since its formation, Roof Corporation has incurred the following net Section 1231 gains and losses. Year 1$(12,000)Net Section 1
vekshin1

Answer:

a. $0 will be reported as capital gain, while $7,500 will be reported as ordinary gain.

b. $1,000 will be reported as capital gain, while $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete as part 'a' of the requirement is omitted. The complete question with the part 'a' of the requirement is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Since its formation, Roof Corporation has incurred the following net Section 1231 gains and losses.

Year 1  $ (12,000)    Net Section 1231 loss

Year 2      10,500      Net Section 1231 gain

Year 3    (14,000)     Net Section 1231 loss

a. In year 4, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $7,500 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

b. In year 5, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $9,000 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

When section 1231 losses exceed section 1231 profits in the prior five years, the excess loss (unapplied loss) is applied against the current year's section 1231 gain.

The amount that is reported as ordinary income is the amount of the loss that is applied against the current year's section 1231 gain.

Long-term capital gain is the excess of the current year's section 1231 gain over the the recaptured section 1231 loss from the prior five years.

You have to start with the earliest year to apply section 1231 losses from the previous five years to the current year's section 1231 gain.

Therefore, we have:

a. In year 4, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $7,500 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

As a result of the loss from the previous year that is applied to the extent of $7,500, the whole of the $7,500 net Section 1231 gain will be recorded as ordinary gain.

Therefore, $0 will be reported as capital gain, while $7,500 will be reported as ordinary gain.

b. In year 5, Roof sold one asset and recognized a $9,000 net Section 1231 gain. How much of this gain is treated as capital, and how much is ordinary?

Unapplied losses in previous years can be calculated as follows:

<u>Details                                                       Amount ($)   </u>

Net Section 1231 loss in Year 3                  (14,000)    

Net Section 1231 gain in Year 4                   7,500

Net Section 1231 loss in Year 1                  (12,000)

Net Section 1231 gain in Year 2               <u>   10,500  </u>

Unapplied losses in previous years    <u>    (8,000)  </u>

Because there are unapplied losses of $8,000 from previous years, $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

Therefore, the amount to be reported as capital gain can be calculated as follows:

Amount to be reported as capital gain = Gain in Year 5 – Amount to be reported as ordinary gain = $9,000 - $8,000 = $1,000

Therefore, $1,000 will be reported as capital gain, while $8,000 will be reported as ordinary gain.

8 0
3 years ago
College football​ attendance, especially student​ attendance, has been on the decline. In​ 2016, home attendance at major colleg
puteri [66]

Answer:

Your opportunity cost of attending a game compared with the opportunity cost facing a college student 10 years ago is:

A) higher, because more games are televised today.

Opportunity costs are the cost of choosing one alternative from another.

In this case, when college students attend college football games they are unable to do other activities, not only while they are at the stadium or going to the stadium, but they are not able to purchase other goods. The cost of those alternatives that are lost are higher now because many college football games are televised now, before if you wanted to see a game you had to go to the game. So a student is now able to watch the game while doing other activities, or saving money for buying something else.

Can this change in opportunity cost account for the decline in college football​ attendance?

B) ​Yes, because these changes increase the opportunity cost of watching football games in person.

Even though opportunity costs do not involve actual cash payments, they are still important and individuals do consider them when they are choose one option over another. E.g. imagine if you had to choose between spending a considerable amount of money by attending a game (ticket, gas, beverages, etc.) or watching that game on TV and buying a few clothes instead or going on a date, etc. What option would you choose?

6 0
3 years ago
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