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Brut [27]
3 years ago
5

Why did many western states have no specific legislation on segregation?

History
1 answer:
postnew [5]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Because there was no need for it.

People got along and race and color meant nothing in the west. People just went about their business and for the most part lived in isolated land within state borders.

Also the population led to a more spread out area.

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Answer:

Explanation:

<u>1. Hitler is referencing the Treaty of Versailles, </u><u>the document made at the end of World War I that ended to war between Central and Allied powers. </u>As Germany was on the side of Central Powers and had to admit that they are solely responsible for the start of the war and the damage, they have been punished by the loss of territory.

<u>Treaty of Versailles declared that Germany is to lose all the colonies, as well as give and return various regions to France</u> (Alsace-Lorraine), <u>Belgium </u>(Eupen and Malmedy), <u>Denmark </u>(Northern Schleswig), <u>Poland </u>( parts of West Prussia and Silesia ), <u>Czechoslovakia </u>(Hultschin) and <u>Lithuania </u>(Memel). Part of Western Germany, <u>Rhineland, was demilitarized</u>, and regions of Saar and the city of Danzig <u>came under the protection of League of Nations</u>. Germany was also forced to acknowledge and respect Austria's independence.

<u>2. </u>The loss of territory did not fit Germany and it's people. We can see in Hitler's quote that he felt that Germany suffered injustice and that it deserves to regain control of it's lost parts an regions.

<u>However, in the quote, Hitler clearly states that he plans to use the force to regain control over these territories. This foreshadows the military showdown that is about to become World War II.</u> Hitler planned all along to seize the lost territories in the war, which is exactly <u>why World War II included the attacks on Poland, France, Czechoslovakia, Belgium, etc. and the annexation of Austria. </u>

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Answer:

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