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makkiz [27]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP!! Will mark brainlest!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
vlada-n [284]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I'm not even lying, it's none of them ;-;

btw if you want, can you give me brainliest :((

erica [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

16^(1/2)

when bringing a number to the power of a fraction the denominator becomes the order of the root and the numerator becomes the power of the number

we are left with an order 2 root, which is a square root

16^\frac{1}{2}=\sqrt[2]{16}=4

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iren2701 [21]

Answer:

80 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the Central Angle Theorum, which states that if the vertex of the angle is the center of the circle, then the arc is the same measurement as the angle.

In this case, m<COB is 80 degrees, and the vertex is the center of the circle, which means that measure of arc CB is also 80 degrees

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7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

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The fixed amount is the amount charged for 0 days' rental. The ordered pair (0, 80) tells you it is $80.
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Help (what is the correct answer)?
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The answer is b because the slope is rise over run it goes up 2 times and right 4 times which are both positive so the answer is 2/4 or 1/2
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