A) Probability that at least one of these golfers makes a hole in one on the 10th hole at the same tournament is
<span>=1−(<span>2493/2494</span><span>)^<span>5
=1-(0.99)^5
= 1- 0.96
=0.4
b) T</span></span></span><span>he probability that all of these golfers make a hole-in-one on the 10th hole at the same tournament
=</span>(<span>1/2494</span><span>)<span>5
</span></span>
which is nearly zero.
You might be able to do direct substitution.
Answer:
B. No. The product of two fractions is the product of the numerators divided by the product of the denominators.
Step-by-step explanation:
For A: A is clearly false because you can multiply any fraction and it doesnt matter what the denominator is.
For B: The first part is correct, which is that to multiply two fractions, they dont have to have like/common denominators, the explanation part is also correct. When we multiply we multiply the numerator to the numerator and the denominator to the denominator.
For C: C is false because the first part says yes and we know that you can multiply any 2 fractions regardless of denominators.
For D: For D the first part is correct however, the explanation section is false you dont multiply the numerator to the denominator.
For E: You don't have to find the equivalent fraction to multiply because you can do that afterward.
I hope this helps, have a blessed day! :D
Answer:
124
Step-by-step explanation:
is in the photo
i hope this helps :)
Answer:
false
Step-by-step explanation:
X is equal to Y
therefore,
X = Y
X= false
Y = false
so,
false = false
