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Nezavi [6.7K]
2 years ago
9

Michelle is an active participant in the rental condominium property she owns. During the year, the property generates a ($17,50

0) loss; however, Michelle has sufficient tax basis and at-risk amounts to absorb the loss. If Michelle has $120,000 of salary, $10,500 of long-term capital gains, $3,500 of dividends, and no additional sources of income or deductions, how much loss can Michelle deduct?
Business
1 answer:
julsineya [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: $8,000

Explanation:

A special rule allows Michelle to classify up to $25,000 as losses against her nonpassive income.

If Michelle's modified adjusted gross income (MAGI) exceeds $100,000 however, the amount that exceeds the $100,000 will be reduced by 50% and deducted from the exemption allowed.

Loss deduction = Exemption allowed - [(Nonpassive income - MAGI limit) * 50%)

= 25,000 - [ (120,000 + 10,500 + 3,500 - 100,000) * 50%]

= $8,000

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Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:

A, B, and E

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a. Year 6 Forecast = 3,775

b. Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. Year 6 Forecast = 3,780

Explanation:

Given

The miles driven during the past 5 years are as​ follows

Year 1 -- 3,100

Year 2 --- 4,050

Year 3 --- 3,450

Year 4 ---- 3,750

Year 5 --- 3,800

a. The forecast for year 6 is calculated as follows;

Using a 2 year moving average

Forecast = ½(Year 4 + Year 5)

Forecast = ½(3750 + 3800)

Forecast = ½ * 7550

Forecast = 3,775

b. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD), if two years moving average is used.

------------------------------2 year difference ----- Difference

Year 1 -- 3,100 ------------------------------------------

Year 2 --- 4,050 -----------------------------------------

Year 3 --- 3,450 ---- 3,575 -------- 125

Year 4 ---- 3,750 ---- 3,750 ------ 0

Year 5 --- 3,800 ----- 3,600 ------ 200

The 2-year difference column is calculated using.

Summation of previous 2 years forecast * ½

Year 1 and 2 are empty because they don't have previous 2 years.

For year 3;

2 year difference = ½ (year 1 + year 2)

= ½(3,100 + 4,050)

= ½ (7,150)

= 3,575

For year 4

2 year difference = ½ (year 2 + year 3)

= ½(4,050 + 3,750)

= ½ (7,500)

= 3,750

For year 5:

2 year difference = ½ (year 3 + year 4)

= ½(3,750 + 3,450)

= ½ (7,200)

= 3,600

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (Summation of Difference)/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (125 + 0 + 200)

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 325/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. for year 6 using a weighted​ 2-year moving average with weights of 0.40 and 0.60

For year 5:

Forecast = 0.4 * year 4 + 0.6 * year 5

= 0.4(3,750) + 0.6(3,800)

= 3,780

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3 years ago
Item Hare’s Net Book Value on the Date of Sale List Price of Same Item If New Appraiser’s Estimate of Fair Value Punch press $ 1
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

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  • Lathe - $3,908.52
  • Welder - $2,344.36

Explanation:

Cost will be allocated based on proportion of total Appraiser's estimate of fair value.

Total Appraisal Estimate = 16,000 + 5000 + 3,050

= $24,050

Total Purchase Price = Purchase price + Installation cost

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Punch Press

Punch Press proportion = \frac{16,000}{24,050} * 100

= 66.5%

Punch Press Cost = 66.5% * 18,800

= $12,502

Lathe

Lathe proportion = \frac{5,000}{24,050} * 100

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Punch Press Cost = 20.79% * 18,800

= $3,908.52

Welder

Welder proportion = \frac{3,000}{24,050} * 100

= 12.47%

Punch Press Cost = 12.47% * 18,800

= $2,344.36

Note; There are multiple variants of this question so be sure to check the figures to ensure it is the right one.

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timofeeve [1]

Answer:

Explanation:

  • The bond has 8% coupon paid semiannually, and those bonds sell at their par value.
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<u>Second bond:</u>

  • Coupon rate = 8%
  • Par value = $1,000
  • Semiannual coupon amount = 1000 x 8%/2 = $40
  • Time to maturity = 6 years = 12 semiannual periods
  • Semiannual Yield = 8%/2 = 4%

To get price of this bond we will use PV function of excel:

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= PV (4%, 12, -40, -1000, 0)

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Answer:

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= $9,240

Using the Double-declining balance method,

Annual depreciation = 2 × 9,240

                                  = $18,480

3 0
3 years ago
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