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Vsevolod [243]
3 years ago
8

Answer this correctly for brainliest!!!

Business
2 answers:
Nataly_w [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

Im just guessing lol hopefully its right

sergey [27]3 years ago
8 0
I think it’s the first one. I could be wrong though sorry
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The project managers for TechBooks are demonstrating to the marketing team the new features of the site that deliver personalize
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It delivers a relevant landing page
3 0
3 years ago
Let L1 and L2 be two lotteries with the same expected return. Suppose L2 has a larger variance and you are risk averse. Would yo
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

option 2)  smaller

As CE is the amount which if the agent gets with certainty, then agent will be indifferent between playing lottery or getting that amount with certainty

So L2 is more risky, & agent is risk averse, so agent will be ready to accept a lower amount with certainty ( as compared to the amount for a safer option : L1)

So CE of L2 will be lower

6 0
3 years ago
At year-end, Yates Company estimates that $1,500 of its accounts receivable balance is uncollectible. Yates uses the allowance m
erastova [34]

Answer:

debit to Bad Debts Expense and credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

Explanation:

Based on the information provided for this scenario it can be said that the entry to record this adjusting entry would include a debit to Bad Debts Expense and credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. Meaning that the bad debts expense is increasing while the same amount is being taken from the allowance for doubtful accounts. This is what the allowance method is used for, it provides an advance for uncollectible accounts, by setting aside money in a reserve account.

4 0
3 years ago
A company uses the departmental overhead rate method. Total overhead costs are $5,000,000. Of this total, the machining departme
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated Machining cost= $4,000,000

Estimated Number of machine hours= 80,000

<u>To calculate the allocation rate for the Machining department, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Allocation rate Machining= total estimated costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Allocation rate Machining= 4,000,000 / 80,000

Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour

4 0
3 years ago
An RBS Risk Impact Assessment benefits from information gathered from: I. Onsite examination II. Offsite examination III. News r
Ivan

not being rude but how many question do you have  how do you do that

i know the answer though

4 0
2 years ago
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