Answer: Rylan's stock would sell for $21.96 at the end of the four years
Explanation:
PV = Current Price = $31.27
D = Dividend paid each year =$5.70
r = Equity cost of capital = 12%
FV = Price of Rylan's stock at the end of four years = ??
N = Number of years = 4
PV = D ![[\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1+r)^{N} } }{r} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D%20%7D%20%7D%7Br%7D%20%5D)
+ 
31.27 = 5.70 ![[\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1+0.12)^{4} } }{0.12} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2B0.12%29%5E%7B4%7D%20%7D%20%7D%7B0.12%7D%20%5D)
+ 
Solve for FV,
FV = $21.96
Rylan's stock would sell for $21.96 at the end of the four years
Answer:
Explanation:
I will be starting with the similarities first. 3 of the similarities both of them share are
1) They both have a financial leverage that is quite high
2) they both can be subjected to national oversight as regards to their balance sheet quality.
3) they both are institutions that accepts funds and also gives out funds to finance commercial firms
Moving on to the differences, differences that exists between both includes
1) Insurance companies can are invest in stock markets but depository institutions do not have that leverage.
2) Insurance companies do not have fixed composition of liabilities, while depository institutions have.
3)
The payback period of the project is 3.3 years.
Payback period = initial investment/ annual cash flow
= 50,000/15,000
= 3.3 years.
The time period payback period refers to the amount of time it takes to get better the fee of an funding. surely put, it's miles the period of time an investment reaches a breakeven point. human beings and groups in particular invest their money to receives a commission again, which is why the payback length is so vital.
Payback period in capital budgeting refers back to the time required to recoup the budget expended in an funding, or to attain the ruin-even factor. for example, a $a thousand funding made at the start of 12 months 1 which again $500 at the quit of year 1 and year 2 respectively could have a two-year payback duration.
In simple terms, the payback period is calculated by dividing the cost of the funding via the annual coins waft till the cumulative coins flow is nice, that's the payback yr. Payback length is typically expressed in years.
Learn more about payback period here : brainly.com/question/23149718
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Answer:
The correct option is $1.14
Explanation:
D1=D0*(1+g)
D1 is year 1 dividend
g growth rate of dividend of 15%
D1=$0.54*(1+15%)
D1=$0.54*(1+0.15)
D1=$0.54*1.15
D1=$0.621
00
D2=$0.621*1.15
D2=$0.71415
We need to apply the discount factor to each of the dividends,the discount factor is 1/(1+r)^n
r is the rate of return of 11%
n is the relevant year
present value of year 1 dividend=$0.62100*1/(1+11%)^1
present value of year 1 dividend=$0.559459459
Present value of year 2=$0.71415*1/(1+11%)^2
Present value of year 2=$0.579620161
Total value present values=$0.559459459
+$0.579620161
=$1.14
Answer:
a trade surplus and positive net exports.
Explanation:
If a country sells more goods and services to foreign countries than it buys from them, it means the country's export is greater than its import. If export is greater than import, net exports (export- import ( would be postive.
Also, there would be a trade surplus.
A trade surplus is when the value of export is greater than imports.
I hope my answer helps you
