All categories

3 years ago

Please help with this question I will pass if I get it right

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alex17521 [72]3 years ago

4 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

∠K = ∠M = 55°

Step-by-step explanation:

The two marked angles are opposite the sides marked as congruent. That means the angles are congruent, so we have ...

4x -1 = 2x +27

2x = 28 . . . . . . . . add 1-2x to both sides

x = 14

4x -1 = 4(14) -1 = 55

The measures of the angles are ...

∠K = ∠M = 55°

You might be interested in

Cammie can mow 1/2 acre in 25 minutes. If her rate is constant, Cammie says she can mow 1 1/4 acres in one hour. Is Cammie corre

Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer: No, Cammie is not correct. She can mow $1\frac{1}{5}\ acres$ in one hour (See explanation).

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the mixed number to an impoper fraction:

1. Multiply the whole number part by the denominator of the fraction and add the product to the numerator.

2. The denominator does not change.

Then:

$1\frac{1}{4}=\frac{(1*4)+1}{4}=\frac{5}{4}$

Let be "x" the acres Cammie can mow in one hour.

You know that she can mow $\frac{1}{2}\ acre$ in 25 minutes, then you can set up the following proportion (Remember that 1 hour has 60 minutes):

$\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{25}=\frac{x}{60}$

Solving for "x", you get:

$\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{25}=\frac{x}{60}\\\\(60)(\frac{1}{50})=x\\\\x=\frac{6}{5}$

Convert from improper fraction to mixed number:

1. When you divide 6 by 5, the quotient is 1. This will be the whole number part.

2. The remainder is 1. This will be the numerator.

3. The denominator does not change.

Then:

$x=1\frac{1}{5}$

Therefore, she can mow $1\frac{1}{5}\ acres$ in one hour.

3 0

3 years ago

Please help due in 5 minutes

garik1379 [7]

Answer:

It would take 54 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the miles are divided by 9 and it takes Molly 6 minutes to run 1/9 of a mile, you would multiply 6 by 9.

6x9 = 54

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Prove this identity sin^2θcsc^2θ=sin^2θ+cos^2θ by simplifying both sides of the equation.

Gwar [14]

$\bf \begin{array}{rllll} sin^2(\theta )csc^2(\theta )&=&sin^2(\theta )+cos^2(\theta )\\\\ ~~\begin{matrix} sin^2(\theta ) \\[-0.7em]\cline{1-1}\\[-5pt]\end{matrix}~~ \cdot \cfrac{1^2}{~~\begin{matrix} sin^2(\theta ) \\[-0.7em]\cline{1-1}\\[-5pt]\end{matrix}~~ }&=&1\\\\ 1^2&=&1\\ 1&=&1 \end{array}$