15.93 because 4.55 times 3 and (4.55/2) so you'll end up with 15.93
Answer
Part 1) f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
Part 2) quantity
Explanation
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
In finding the inverse of F(x) we make x the suject of the formula.
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
2,500x = 100,000 - f(x)
x = 100,000/2,500 - f(x)/2500
x = 40 - f(x)/2,500
Now interchange x with f(x).
f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
Answer:
32
Step-by-step explanation:
Because if you put the lack of other side to the other side, it will complete.
One roll = 4
eight rolls = 4 × 8 = 32
Evaluated and Yes it would be 0
Answer:
I looked it up and it said 0.5
