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horsena [70]
3 years ago
8

Positively Rivet Inc. is a small machine shop that produces sheet metal products. It had one line dedicated to the manufacture o

f light-duty vent hood shells, but because of strong demand it recently added a second line. The new line makes use of higher-capacity automated equipment but consists of the same basic four processes as the old line. In addition, the new line makes use of one machine per workstation, while the old line has parallel machines at the workstations. The processes, along with their machine rates, number of machines per station, and average times for a lone job to go through a station (not including queue time), are provided below. Over the past 3 months, the old line has averaged 350 parts per day, where one day consists of one 8-hour shift, and has had an average WIP level of 400 parts. The new line has averaged 680 parts per eight-hour day with an average WIP level of 350 parts. Management has been dissatisfied with the performance of the old line because it is achieving lower throughput with higher WIP than the new line, Your job is to evaluate these two lines to the extent possible with the data provided and identify potentially attractive improvement paths for each line by addressing the following questions:
Compute rb, To, and Wo for both lines. Which line has larger critical WIP? Explain why.
Compute the best case and worst case performance benchmarks for the old and the new line.
Compare the performance of both lines to their corresponding practical worst case. What can you conclude about the relative performance of the two lines compared to their underlying capabilities? Is management correct in criticizing the old line for inefficiency?
If you were the manager in charge of these lines, what option would you consider first to improve the throughput of the old line? Of the new line?
Old Line
Process Rate per Machine (parts/hr) Number of Machines per station Time (minutes)
Punching 15 4 4.0
Braking 12 4 5.0
Assembly 20 2 3.0
Finishing 50 1 1.2
New Line
Process Rate per Machine (parts/hr) Number of Machines per station Time (minutes)
Punching 120 1 0.50
Braking 120 1 0.50
Assembly 125 1 0.48
Finishing 125 1 0.48
Business
1 answer:
Montano1993 [528]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Don't ask so many questions at the same time ok

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Sam and Joan made an offer of $250,000 asking the seller to pay all closing costs. They will put 10% down and pay one discount p
Archy [21]

Answer:

$27,500

Explanation:

Discount points are also called mortgage points and are fees paid as prepaid interest rate on a mortgage property.

One discount point is equivalent to 1% of the loan amount.

In the given scenario a down payment of 10% was made.

Also they are pay one discount point to close.

So total down payment to be made is 10% + 1% = 11%

Amount is cash for closing = 0.11 * 250,000 = $27,500

3 0
2 years ago
You are considering two equally risky annuities, each of which pays $5,000 per year for 10 years. Investment ORD is an ordinary
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

A rational investor would be willing to pay more for DUE than for ORD, so their market prices should differ.

Explanation:

If both annuities pay the same amount ($5,000 per year), then the present value of the annuity due will always be higher than the present value of the ordinary annuity. Therefore, an investor will always be willing to pay more (at equal risk) for the annuity due than the ordinary annuity.

E.g. let say that both annuities carry a 10% interest rate.

The present value of the annuity due is:

PV = $5,000 + [$5,000 x 5.7590 (PV annuity factor, 10%, 9 periods)] = $33,795

The present value of the ordinary annuity is:

PV = $5,000 x 6.1446 (PV annuity factor, 10%, 10 periods) = $30,723

The logic behind this is that $1 today is worth more than $1 tomorrow, and the annuity due's first payment is today, while the ordinary annuity's first payment is in 1 year.

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a source of income? A. Investment B. House purchase C. FICA D. Timeshare
tiny-mole [99]

Investment is a source of income.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help plsssssssssss drag the names next to the correct statements
nata0808 [166]
The same thing the person above me said:)
3 0
3 years ago
China had a $214 billion overall current account surplus in 2012. Assuming that China’s net debt forgiveness was zero in 2012 (i
Pie

Answer:

The correct asnwer is $-214 billion.

Explanation:

A surplus occurs when an account exceeds the credit after having paid all its debts and obligations.

As the example says, assuming that China’s net debt forgiveness was zero in 2012, then the net balance of China's financial account balance would be -214 billion.

This means that China would be facing a deficit.

A defit means that more money comes out of our company's account than it enters.

Which causes China to have a<u> negative balance account.</u>

4 0
3 years ago
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