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3 years ago

To record estimated uncollectible accounts using the allowance method, the adjusting entry would be a

Business

1 answer:

GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Bad debt expense

To Allowance for doubtful accounts

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Explanation:

The adjusting entry using the allowance method for recording the predicted uncollectible account is as follows:

Bad debt expense

To Allowance for doubtful accounts

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Here the bad debt expense is debited as it increased the expenses and credited the allowance for doubtful account as it decreased the assets

Therefore the above represent the bad debt expense

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2 years ago

A bank reconciliation revealed cash per the bank statement of $1,484, cash per company records of $1,681, bank charges of $11, d

kotegsom [21]

Answer:

Correct cash balance is $ 1,580

Explanation:

Balance as per cash book $ 1,681

Less: Bank charges $ ( 11)

Less: NSF cheques <u>$ ( 90)</u>

Adjusted balance per cash book <u> $ 1,580</u>

Balance per bank statement $ 1,484

Add: Deposits in transit $ 317

Less; Outstanding checks <u>$ ( 221)</u>

Adjusted balance per bank statement <u>$ 1,580</u>

4 0

3 years ago

Mary purchased a home in year 1 for $200,000. She made a 20-percent down payment and financed the rest with a 15 year loan at si

Serjik [45]

Answer:

If Mary decides to itemize her deductions, she can deduct $11,000 from her gross income (= $9,600 + $1,400).

Explanation:

For 2019, Mary can deduct mortgage interests from her first loan and the interests from her home equity loan as itemized deductions. Deductions are available for mortgage debt and other home equity loans up to $500,000 for single filers and $1,000,000 for married joint filers.

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3 years ago

A client, age 67, owns his own home free and clear. The customer has an annual income of $25,000, mainly from social security an

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

The best recommendation to be made to this client is to do nothing.

Explanation:

Investment in stock is a highly risky investment because price of stock often fluctuates which can make an investor to lose a lot of money.

From the question, the client is already old at age 67 with a low income and he does not have any other liquid assets apart from the annual income of $25,000, mainly from social security and interest on funds held in a bank savings account.

Since losing so much money through investment in stock is not affordable to him, the best recommendation to be made to this client is to that he should do nothing.

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3 years ago

Sunbird Theatre Inc. owns and operates movie theaters throughout Florida and Georgia. Sunbird Theatre Inc. has declared the foll

bulgar [2K]

Answer:

See the explanation below.

Explanation:

1. Calculation of total dividend for six years (2011 to 2016)

Total dividend = 2011 dividend + 2012 dividend + 2013 dividend + 2014 dividend + 2015 dividend + 2016 dividend

Total dividend = $20,000 + $36,000 + $70,000 + $90,000 + $102,000 + $150,000

Total dividend = $468,000

2. Calculation of per-share dividends declared on each class of stock for each of the six years

Note that preferred stock holders are entitled to dividend first before the common stock holders. It is what remains after paying the preferred shareholders that the common shareholders get. Therefore, the calculation is done as follows:

2011:

Preferred dividend per share = Preferred dividend rate × Preferred stock price

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Actual dividend declared = $20,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $20,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.20

Preferred dividend arrears (Cumulative) = $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000

Preferred dividend per share arrears (Cumulative) = $10,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.10

Since preferred stock holders are entitled to dividend first before the common stock holders and the dividend declared is lower than the dividend payable to the preferred shareholders, the common stockholders will receive zero dividend in 2011.

Also, since it is stated in the question that the preferred 1% stock is cumulative

2012:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Total dividend declared = $36,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

To pay preferred dividend in arrears = $36,000 - $30,000 = $6,000

Preferred dividend arrears per share paid = $6,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.06

Balance of preferred dividend arrears = $10,000 - $6,000 = $4,000

Balance of preferred dividend per share arrears = $4,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.04.

Total preferred dividend paid in 2012 = $36,000

Preferred dividend per share paid in 2012 = $36,000 ÷ 100,000 = 0.36

Again for the same reason as stated above, the common stockholders will also receive zero dividend in 2012.

2013:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Total dividend declared = $70,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

To pay preferred dividend arrears = $4,000

Preferred dividend arrears per share paid = $4,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.04

Common stock dividend = $70,000 - $34,000 = $36,000

Common stock dividend per share = $36,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.09.

2014:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $90,000

Common stock dividend = $90,000 - $30,000 = $60,000

Common stock dividend per share = $60,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.15.

2014:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $102,000

Common stock dividend = $102,000 - $30,000 = $72,000

Common stock dividend per share = $72,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.18.

2015:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $150,000

Common stock dividend = $150,000 - $30,000 = $130,000

Common stock dividend per share = $130,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.33.

5 0

3 years ago