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Aleonysh [2.5K]
3 years ago
14

In 1999, the Federal Trade Commission allowed Exxon and Mobil to merge. At the time, Exxon and Mobil were the top two firms in t

heir industry, and their merger created the largest corporation in the world. To allow the merger, Exxon and Mobil agreed to sell 2,431 gas stations. Of these, 1,740 were in the mid-Atlantic states, 360 were in California, 319 were in Texas, and 12 were in Guam.
Why would the U.S. government require Exxon and Mobil to divest themselves of so many gas stations in localized parts of the country to be willing to allow the merger to occur?

a. Because these geographic regions had too many gas stations.
b. To protect consumers from inappropriate price decreases.
c. To ensure competition in these regions and protect consumers from unwarranted price increases.
d. To ensure that Exxon-Mobil would earn fair profits in these geographic areas.
Business
1 answer:
Dahasolnce [82]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1999 Merger of Exxon and Mobil

The reason that made the U.S. government to require Exxon and Mobil to divest themselves of so many gas stations in localized parts of the country to be willing to allow the merger to occur is:

c. To ensure competition in these regions and protect consumers from unwarranted price increases.

Explanation:

The agreement to sell so many gas stations in localized parts of the country was to forestall antitrust lawsuits.  It was also made to protect consumers from unwarranted price increases, allowing more competition in the affected areas, where ExxonMobil owed too many gas stations.

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Consider the production possibilities frontier model for an economy that produces only two goods: barley and cars.
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

Production Possibilities Frontier

Explanation:

In a theoretical economy, the production possibilities frontier, is the curve that shows the  combination of goods produced (barley and cars) by an economy given a limited resource. Furthermore the more goods (barley) is produced, the less cars are produced. Thus, for every additional barley's produced, there's an opportunity cost of cars.

7 0
3 years ago
Carla is not wealthy but attends a school in the wealthy part of her city. She works at a grocery store after school. Other girl
erica [24]

Form

Explanation:

form because it talks how she needs designer clothes to fit in in its form.handles her clothing

5 0
4 years ago
Bayest Manufacturing Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

Applied overhead = $380,250

Under applied by = $71,750

Explanation:

Firstly, we know that the formula for overhead rate is ;

Overhead rate = Cost of manufacturing overhead/Cost driver

It also means that to get the predetermined overhead rate, the expected cost will be distributed along a cost driver. Hence;

Labor hours = $396,500/61,000 = $6.5

The above rate would then be applied to the actual labor hour for the period

= $58,500 × $6.5 = $380,250

It therefore means that the applied overhead for the period is $380,250

We will now compare the applied overhead with actual overhead

= $380,250 - $452,000

= ($71,750)

It means that the overhead was under applied as the actual overhead cost was higher.

3 0
3 years ago
An employee time ticket is an hour-by-hour summary of the employee’s activities throughout the day. True or false?.
padilas [110]

It is true that an employee time ticket is an hour-by-hour summary of the employee’s activities throughout the day.

A time ticket is used to track the hours for which an employee will be paid in the upcoming payroll. Employees' time tickets are reviewed and approved by a supervisor at the closing of each pay period. After which the payroll team use them to calculate the hours worked by an employee. This serves as a basis for calculating gross pay.

When an employee clocks in or out, they generally put a time ticket into a time clock that are printed in an oblong, thick paper shape. Usually time tickets are physical cards that are stamped with beginning and ending times of employees work days. The payroll accountant or bookkeeper creates time tickets after the pay month has ended.

To learn more about employee time ticket here

brainly.com/question/14338603

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
Mill Co.’s allowance for credit losses was $100,000 at the end of Year 2 and $90,000 at the end of Year 1. For the year ended De
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

The amount worth $6,000 will be debited to the account in Year 2

Explanation:

When the uncollectible accounts are written off, then the debit is created to the allowance and the credit to the accounts receivable. The starting balance in the allowance account is $90,000 and the ending balance is $100,000 and the expense of bad debt is $16,000

The write off is computed as:

Write off = Beginning balance + Bad debt expense - Ending balance

= $90,000 + $16,000 - $100,000

= $106,000 - $100,000

= $6,000

Therefore, the amount of $6,000 is to be write off in Year 2

7 0
3 years ago
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