Answer:
D. Accounts for resources that are legally restricted so only earnings, not principal, may be expended.
Explanation:
Based on the scenario been described in the question, we can say that a permanent fund classified under governmental funds are accounts for resources that are legally restricted so only earnings, not principal, may be expended. We have government funds as special service funds and debt service funds. so we this explanation, we can see that the best is option D which is the correct answer.
Question: What percentage of the variation in overhead costs is explained by the independent variable
Answer: 82.8%
Explanation:
= 0.848 (84.8%), the explanation of variation in Y from the X regress
Question: What is the total overhead cost for an estimated activity level of 60,000 direct labor-hours
Answer: $410,000
Explanation:
The equation resulting from this regression analysis is:
Total overhead = Estimated fixed cost + Estimated variable cost per labor hour x Labor hours
= Intercept estimate + Coefficient estimate on independent variable x 60,000 DLH
= 110000 + 5 x 60000 DLH
= 110000 + 300000
= 410000
I believe that the answer to the question provided above is that charging <span>the new deal was antibusiness and anti–free enterprise was a right thing to do, to regulate the enterprise.</span>
Hope my answer would be a great help for you. If you have more questions feel free to ask here at Brainly.
Answer:
Explanation:
First one is false because diversification reduces risk because it divides the risk amongst different securities. The portfolio risk will therefore be lower than the average of all stocks' standard deviations.
Second one is true because unsystematic risk is risk that will come with the type of stock or security purchased. It is usually referred to as diversifiable risk because using negatively correlated stocks can help diversify this risk.
Third one is True because the portfolio's risk when diversified is indeed likely to be smaller than the average of all stocks' standard deviation.
Fourth one is false because portfolio risk is <em>reduced</em> if stock that are negatively correlated are put into a portfolio because it means that when one stock is not doing so well, the other being negatively correlated, will be doing fine.