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Rasek [7]
3 years ago
14

Punitive damages are damages imposed on the wrongdoer by the court as punishment for an unintentional tort.

Business
1 answer:
snow_lady [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

Punitive damages are the damages that a defendant pays in addition to actual damages. Punitive damages are awarded by a court when the defendant's behavior is found to be intentional or negligent.

In the cases of tort liability, the court applies punitive damages when defendants motif is proved to be intentional.

Therefore, the given statement is false, as the court impose punitive damages for intentional tort.

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From the end of 2010 to the end of 2011, M1 increased from $2,006 billion to $2,311 billion. By what percentage did M1 increase?
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

15.20%

Explanation:

The computation of the M1 increase is shown below:

= (M1 End of the year 2011  - M1 end of the year 2010) ÷ M1 End of the year 2010

= ($2,311 billion - $2,006 billion) ÷ ($2,006 billion)

= 15.20%

4 0
3 years ago
Q1. Big Money Monster is a business school. The school bases its budgets on two measures of activity: number of students and num
maxonik [38]

Answer:

Big Money Monster

The spending variance for course supplies is:

$50 Unfavorable.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                       Fixed cost   Variable cost   Variable cost    Total

                                       per month    per student     per course

Faculty wages                   $4,000             $0                   $20

Course supplies                $1,000             $10                  $50

Administrative expenses $2,000            $20                  $30

Budgeted number of students = 300

Budgeted number of courses = 15

Actual number of students = 280

Actual number of courses = 18

Actual Faculty wages = $4,200

Actual Course supplies = $4,800

Budgeted Costs:

                                       Fixed cost   Variable cost   Variable cost    Total

                                       per month    per student     per course

Faculty wages                   $4,000             $0                   $20          $4,300

Course supplies                $1,000             $10                  $50            4,750

Administrative expenses $2,000            $20                  $30            8,450

Budgeted costs:

Faculty wages = $4,000 + $0 + $20 * 15 = $4,300

Course supplies = $1,000 + $10 * 300 + $50 * 15 = $4,750

Administrative expenses = $2,000 + $20 * 300 + $30 * 15 = $8,450

Budgeted Cost of Course Supplies = $4,750

Actual Cost of Course Supplies =         4,800

Spending variance for Course Supplies = 50 Unfavorable

4 0
3 years ago
According to SEC independence regulations,
Komok [63]

Answer: Option (b) is correct.

According to Securities and Exchange Commission independence code:   Pre-approval of accountants' work may be in reconciliation with comprehensive policies and transaction rather than categorical.

The Commission’s code, principally through Regulations S-X, focuses on the accomplishment of accountants, counting the autonomy condition for auditors that issue audit filed with Commission.

5 0
4 years ago
U.S. imports are​ _____ produced in​ _____ and sold in​ _____. A. goods and​ services; any other​ country; the United States B.
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

US imports refer to the goods and services that are produced in some countries other than the US. These goods are then sold in the US. The imports for the US are exports for the country that is producing those goods and services.

While the goods and services that are produced in the US and sold in some other country are exports for the US and imports for the purchasing country.

6 0
3 years ago
According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), a capital budgeting project that has a beta equal to zero should be evaluat
lara [203]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.12

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0

Ke= 0.05 + 0 (0.07)

Ke 0.05000

As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility

6 0
3 years ago
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