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victus00 [196]
2 years ago
15

400,000 + 40,000????

Mathematics
2 answers:
zubka84 [21]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

440,000

Step-by-step explanation:

I got 440,000 as an answer because I did

400,000

+40,000

________

440,000

You could work from the ones to the hundred thousandths.

First add the zeros, then work to the thousandths. 0+0=0, 0+0=0,0+0=0,0+0=0,0+4=4, 4+0=4.

Therefore, 400,000+40,000=440,000.

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

440,000!!! LOL

Step-by-step explanation:

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If r = 5 and s = -3:
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The boundary of a lamina consists of the semicircles y = 1 − x2 and y = 16 − x2 together with the portions of the x-axis that jo
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Answer:

Required center of mass (\bar{x},\bar{y})=(\frac{2}{\pi},0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given semcircles are,

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then,

m=\int\int_{D}\rho dA=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}rdrd\theta=k\int_{}^{}(4-1)d\theta=3\pi k

  • Now, x-coordinate of center of mass is \bar{y}=\frac{M_x}{m}. in polar coordinate y=r\sin\theta

\therefore M_x=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}x\rho(x,y)dA

=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}(r)\sin\theta)rdrd\theta

=k\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}r\sin\thetadrd\theta

=3k\int_{0}^{\pi}\sin\theta d\theta

=3k\big[-\cos\theta\big]_{0}^{\pi}

=3k\big[-\cos\pi+\cos 0\big]

=6k

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\therefore M_y=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}x\rho(x,y)dA

=\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}\frac{k}{r}(r)\cos\theta)rdrd\theta

=k\int_{0}^{\pi}\int_{1}^{4}r\cos\theta drd\theta

=3k\int_{0}^{\pi}\cos\theta d\theta

=3k\big[\sin\theta\big]_{0}^{\pi}

=3k\big[\sin\pi-\sin 0\big]

=0

Then, \bar{x}=\frac{M_y}{m}=0

Hence center of mass (\bar{x},\bar{y})=(\frac{2}{\pi},0)

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Let the height be x

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V = (800 - 80x - 40x + 4x²)x

V = 4x³ - 120x² + 800x

dV/dx= 12x² - 240x + 800 = 0

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x = [60 +/- sqrt(60² - 4(3)(200))]/6

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Therefore the equation of the line is

y =  \frac{3}{2} x +  4\frac{1}{2}

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2 years ago
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