Answer:
3/25
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
37.77
Step-by-step explanation:
P= PV x i / 1- (1+i)^-n
PV = 745
I = .1684 / 12 = .01403
N = 4 x 12 = 48
.19 x (365 x 9) = 624.53
21.4338469 x 48= 1028.12
624.53 / (624.53+1028.12) = 37.77
So I know some of them but not all them sorry
5. If m<5=70 then m<6= <em><u>20</u></em>
<em>Why? </em> Because there is a 90 degree angle there and if m<5 is 70 all you have to do to get m<6 is subtract 70 from 90 and you get 20 degrees
6. If m<5=70 then m<1= <em><u>90 </u></em> and m<4=<em><u>90 </u></em>
<em>Why? </em>Because you can see based on the drawing that they form right angles
4a. FGK is right angles
4b. The measure of FGK is 90 in total
<em>Why? </em> It has the right angle
Hope this helps:) this was all I could remember
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
We can model the string as a hypergeometric distribution, as each bit has two possible values, 1 or 0, and the chance of a 1 or 0 changes with every bit, as there are a finite number M of 0's and N of 1's and every bit takes one of those values.
If M+N (total size of the string) >> r (number of trials), we could model it as a binomial distribution as the probability of a 1 or 0 wouldn't change in a significant amount with every bit, but as we don't know the magnitude of M+N and r, we follow up with hypergeometric distribution.
The distribution has the following formula for probability:

Where k is the number of sucesses, K is how many total sucess states are in the population, N is the population size and n is the number of draws.
For our case, a 1 would be a sucess, i.e. k the number of 1's we want to know the probability, N our total number of 1's, M+N the length of the string (population size) and we want to analyse what happens in the first r bits (number of draws):
