Question

HELP PLEASE the answrtr

Answer 1

first:

$\left(\frac{1}{4}+1\frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{6}{4}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}}{2} =\frac{7}{4\cdot \:2} =\frac{7}{8}$

So the first is the correct one.

Hope I helped you!

Success!

by a romanian guy.

Answer 2

Answer:

It would be 1 1/8 because 1 times 1 = 1 and the 4 times 2 would be 8 so there is 1 1/8

Step-by-step explanation: