HELP PLEASE the answrtr

Mathematics

2 answers:

lesantik [10]3 years ago

8 0

first:

$\left(\frac{1}{4}+1\frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \frac{1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{6}{4}\right)\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}\cdot \:1}{2} =\frac{\frac{7}{4}}{2} =\frac{7}{4\cdot \:2} =\frac{7}{8}$

So the first is the correct one.

<h3>Hope I helped you!</h3><h3>Success!</h3>

by a romanian guy.

Thepotemich [5.8K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

It would be 1 1/8 because 1 times 1 = 1 and the 4 times 2 would be 8 so there is 1 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

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