For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
#SPJ4
Answer:
77/2 is 38.5 if that is what u were asking
Step-by-step explanation:
She would have $800 left.
$4000 - $2800= 1200
1200 is how much she spent the last 3 months
1200/ 3= 400
400 * 5= $2000
2800- 2000= $800
9514 1404 393
Answer:
20 -x
Step-by-step explanation:
Relative to the shore, the speed of the current subtracts from the speed of the boat. The net upstream speed is ...
20 -x . . . . miles per hour
Hi i hope this helps....
the answer to this problem is 8.321839080459770114942528735632183908
rounded answer =8
