No, because 40 x 10 is not 4000, but is is 400. It is 100x greater not 10x
Bivariate Analysis is the answer
Answer:
ihnc
Step-by-step explanation:
ihnc
Answer:
The correct answer is -4
Step-by-step explanation:
First you have to solve what is in the parenthesis. So do 36/6 which is 6 and then subtract 2 to get 4. Then you have to do the multiplication so 16 x 4 and you get 64. then you can go left to right. 82-64+18+4 and when you do that you get -4
