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Sidana [21]
3 years ago
11

The most widely used method of job analysis for determining the duties and responsibilities of a job is the

Business
1 answer:
laiz [17]3 years ago
8 0
The most widely used method of job analysis for determining the duties and responsibilities of a job is the <span>interview method.
Interview method involves direct interaction between employers and the applicants. It allows the employers to gauge applicant's personality and interest in the job</span>
You might be interested in
On January 1, 2021, Kendall Inc. began construction of an automated cattle feeder system. The system was finished and ready for
beks73 [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is "$21490".

Explanation:

The given expenditures are:

January:

= $205000

September:

= $306000

December:

= $306000

Now,

January average will be:

= 205000\times \frac{12}{12}

= 205000 ($)

September average will be:

= 306000\times \frac{4}{12}

= 102000

December average will be:

= 306000\times \frac{0}{12}

= 0

The total average will be:

= 205000+102000+0

= 307000 ($)

Hence,

The Interest capitalized for year 2021 will be:

= Interest \ rate\times Weighted \ average

On substituting the estimated values, we get

= 7 \ percent\times 307000

= 21490 ($)

3 0
2 years ago
This model focuses on the practitioner as the agent of the occupational environment,
Ainat [17]

Answer: A) The practitioner incorporating the principles of therapeutic use of self.

Explanation: The therapeutic use of the self is the ability of the therapist to be aware of himself and the patient and take care of what he communicates. It is as important as the techniques and knowledge and often makes the difference between success and failure in a treatment. By intervening therapeutically using our "I", counselling appears as a valuable tool that helps the therapist work more effectively to achieve the ultimate goal with the lowest possible personal cost.

4 0
2 years ago
The measure of systematic risk is called ________.
Lorico [155]

The measure of systematic risk is called <u>beta</u>.

The answer is option c.

Beta is the same old CAPM measure of systematic hazard. It gauges the tendency of the go back of protection to transport in parallel with the return of the inventory market as an entire. One manner to consider beta is as a gauge of a protection's volatility relative to the marketplace's volatility.

Systematic risk is a part of the total risk this is caused by factors beyond the control of a specific company or individual. Systematic risk is caused by elements that are outside to the organization. All investments or securities are situations to systematic hazard and, therefore, it's far a non-diversifiable chance.

To measure a monetary firm's contribution to systemic hazard includes measuring the company's expected capital shortfall in a crisis. This right away offers the regulator with a quantifiable degree of the relative significance of a firm's contribution to ordinary systemic chance.

Learn more about organization here: brainly.com/question/24448358

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
A customer has a margin account that shows a market value of $190,000 and a debit balance of $90,000. in addition, the account h
vodka [1.7K]

A maintenance margin is a minimum equity an investor ought to preserve withinside the margin account after the acquisition has been made. Hence,  the long market value at maintenance in this case is $120,000.

<h3>What do you mean by long market value?</h3>

Long market value at maintenance refers to the point where an account must fall (in market value) to reach minimum maintenance (25% of market value). ;

The maintenance margin is far presently set at 25% of the full value of the securities in a margin account as in step with Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) requirements.

To calculate the <em> </em>long market value at maintenance,  divide the debit balance by .75 ($90,000 / .75 = $120,000)

Hence,  the long market value at maintenance is $120,000.

Learn more about long market value at maintenance:

brainly.com/question/15057471

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
A government makes a contribution to its pension plan in the amount of $10,000 for year 1. The actuarially-determined annual req
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

$10,000

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the government contribution to the pension plan was the amount of $10,000 for year 1 which simply means the amount of $10,000 will be the pension expenditure for the general fund for year 1.

Therefore the pension expenditure for the general fund for year 1 will be $10,000.

3 0
2 years ago
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