Answer:
I came up with -12
Step-by-step explanation:
8 workers = 6 days to complete
x workers = 4 days faster to complete
6/4=1.5 days faster
1.5 x 8 = 12 workers needed to complete the wall in fours days
By simplifying the number given which is 8 2/3, we get an improper fraction of 26/3. Also, when we try to divide 26 by 3, we get an answer of 8.6667, with 6 as a repeating number after the decimal place. Therefore, this number is an example of real and rational number. Thus the answer is the second choice.
Answer:
pls mark brainy
Step-by-step explanation:
option (d) is correct.
An equivalent form of the given compound inequality −44 > −2x − 8 ≥ −8 is −44 > −2x − 8 and −2x − 8 ≥ −8
Step-by-step explanation:
Given a compound inequality −44 > −2x − 8 ≥ −8
We have to write an equivalent form of compound inequality.
Compound inequality consists of two inequalities joined together and the solution is the intersection of each inequality.
Compound inequality has two sides the left hand side and right hand side we can solve them by taking each inequality one at a time.
For given compound inequality, −44 > −2x − 8 ≥ −8
we have
Left side of inequality as −44 > −2x − 8
and right side of inequality as −2x − 8 ≥ −8
Thus, option (d) is correct.
Thus, An equivalent form of the given compound inequality −44 > −2x − 8 ≥ −8 is −44 > −2x − 8 and −2x − 8 ≥ −8
Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%28a%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%20a%7D%5Cfrac%7Bf%28x%29-f%28a%29%7D%7Bx-a%7D%7D)
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%281%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%201%7D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cln%28x%2B1%29-%5Cln%282%29%7D%7Bx-1%7D%7D)
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
100% means all of 40.
So 100% of 40 is 40
