Answer:
Price Risk, Reinvestment Risk, Investment Horizon and Longer maturity Bond.
Explanation:
- Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
- Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues.
- Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment.
- Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk.
Answer:
Explanation:
1st strategy : Selling pound forward
The spot rate of the pound is quoted at $1.51.
The one-year forward rate exhibits a 2.65% premium.
The one-year forward rate = 1.51 ( 1+ 0.0265)
= $ 1.55
Dollars received = 100000 * 1.55 = $155000
2nd strategy : Buying put option
The strike price of put = $1.54
premium on option is $.03
Amount received per option = $ 1.54 - $ 0.03 =$1.51
Total Dollars received = 100000* 1.51 = $ 151000
the best possible hedging strategy is Selling pound forward and receiving $155000
Answer: B .An increase in imports into the United States and a decrease in exports to Mexico, which will cause a decrease in aggregate demand and real GDP
Explanation: Both the United state and Mexico are involved in international trade between the two countries in this scenario. So if there is a an appreciation in the Dollars there will be increased in importation into the United States, since fewer dollars will be required to import items. This will caused decrease in export to Mexico which will decreased aggregate demand and real GDP.
Answer:
$2,145
Explanation:
For the computation of Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT) first, we need to compute the tax rate which is shown below:-
Tax rate = Tax expense ÷ Earnings before tax
= 700 ÷ 2,000
= 35%
Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT) = EBIT × (1 - tax rate)
= 3,300 × (1 - 35%)
= $2,145
Therefore for computing the Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT) we simply applied the above formula.
