Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
In 30-60-90
The hypotenuse is always the short leg multiplied by 2
So going backward, 4/2 = 2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Orginal equation:
So lets do this step by step.
First, lets add to both sides of the equation!
This gives us:
Then, when we put this into exponential form, we get:
This then equals:
This can be simplfied into:
Then we can add 32 to both sides, and subtract x from both sides to get the variable and number each on their owns ide:
Finally, we can divide 33 by 7 to get:
Hope this helps! :3
160 in 1¢ steps means 16,000 bids
so you invest $1 with a 1/16000 probability<span> of a $2000 return
the expected value (in dollars) is ___ -1 + [(1/16000) * 2000)]
this is why auction websites exist
THIS MEANS
</span>it is a 1/16,000 chance of earning<span> 1,999 while there is a 15,999 chance of losing a dollar so find 1/16000 which is 0.0000625 so do 1-0.0000625=.9999375 so .9999375*-1=-.9999375+(1999*.0000625=.1249375+-.9999375=0.875 </span>
1 true
2 false
3 false
4 true
5 true
6 false
7 false
8 true
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
tho thop
Step-by-step explanation: