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Aloiza [94]
3 years ago
13

Assume the following: The standard labor rate per hour is $17.00. The standard labor-hours allowed per unit of finished goods is

3 hours. The actual quantity of labor hours worked during the period was 44,000 hours. The total actual direct labor cost for the period was $726,000. The company produced 15,000 units of finished goods during the period. What is the labor efficiency variance
Business
1 answer:
andreyandreev [35.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: $17,000

Explanation:

Labour efficiency variance = Standard rate * (Standard hours - Actual hours )

Standard hours:

= Standard labor-hours allowed per unit * Number of units produced in period

= 3 * 15,000

= 45,000 hours

Labor efficiency variance = 17 * (45,000 - 44,000)

= $17,000 Favorable

<em>Favorable because the standard amount is higher than the actual amount. </em>

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The business market and consumers are divided into subgroups that share common properties and characteristics.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
The bond has a coupon rate of 6.11 percent, it makes semiannual payments, and there are 2 months to the next coupon payment. A c
allsm [11]

Answer:

$997.37

Explanation:

For computing the invoice price first we have to determine the accrued interest which is shown below:

Accrued interest is

= Par value × coupon rate × remaining months ÷ total months

= $1,000 × 6.11% × 4 months ÷ 12 months

= $20.37

Now

Invoice price is

= Clean price + Accrued interest

= $977 + $20.37

= $997.37

6 0
3 years ago
You're welcome. As a first step, our team analyzed the other potential primary contenders. The reality is that with such a stron
SCORPION-xisa [38]

Below is the complete question:

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Answer:

Majority

Explanation:

The reality is that with such a strong field, it is going to be difficult to gain the MAJORITY of votes necessary to avoid a runoff unless you want to go negative from the start.

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose the median household earned $9,242 in 1976 and $52,624 in 2016. During that time, also suppose the CPI rose from 45.6 to
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

a) 469.40%

b) 18.15%

Explanation:

a)

Total nominal growth rate = (\frac{\textup{Earned income in 2016}}{\textup{Earned income in 1976}}-1)\times100\%

thus,

Total nominal growth rate = (\frac{\textup{52,624}}{\textup{9,242}}-1)\times100\%

= 469.40%

b) Total real growth rate = (\frac{\textup{Real earned income in 2016}}{\textup{Real earned income in 1976}}-1)\times100\%

now,

Real earned income in 1976 = \frac{\textup{Earned income in 1976}}{\textup{CPI in 1976}}

=  \frac{\textup{9,242}}{\textup{45.6}\%}

= $20,267.54

and,

Real earned income in 2016 = \frac{\textup{Earned income in 2016}}{\textup{CPI in 2016}}

=  \frac{\textup{52,624}}{\textup{219.75}\%}

= $23,947.21

Therefore,

Total real growth rate = (\frac{\textup{23,947.21 }}{\textup{20,267.54 }}-1)\times100\%

= 18.15%

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following correctly orders the investments from LOWER risk to HIGHER risk?
Yuliya22 [10]
Here is the correct order of investments from Lower Risk to Higher Risk: <span> Treasury bond − Diversified mutual fund – Stock

Treasury bond is released by Government, so unless your country went bankrupt, it is safe to assume that you will get the investment back.

Diversified mutual fund puts your eggs in a lot of baskets So in case one of your investment fail, the others could still support your overall investments

Since the stock is a single entity and really fluctuative, it is considered as the most dangerous type of investment.

</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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