Answer:
It’s not a water tight segregation.
Explanation:
India decided to adopt the policy of separation of religion and state in order to allow everybody in the country choose any religion they wanted to belong to. This is one of the reason why they ensured the country doesn’t have any specific religion attached to it. This helped in the prevention of any type of segregation as a result of religious differences in the country.
The main cause of WWII is the same as that in the first world war, which was mainly allegiances; the Nazi party of Germany invaded Poland, which brought Britain into the war, and then continued to expand across Europe. The primary nations in the allied forces were: Great Britain, France, Poland, USA, Norway, Canada, the USSR, and Denmark, and the primary nations in the Axis Powers were: Germany, Italy, Romania, Bulgaria, and Japan. The main effect of the WWII was the Cold War, a period of about 50 years where the USA and USSR were making threats about nuclear war, as well as the destruction of most of Europe. Another effect was the prevention of Germany to control a Navy. The war ended on September 2nd, 1945, with the surrender of Japan and Germany earlier that year.
Answer: a proxy war is started by a major power, but they do not themselves become involved
Explanation:
in rural areas, the women are uneducated while in urban areas the women are Educated in rural areas they are somewhat the prey of home violence but in urban areas, this condition is rarely seen in rural areas women and are generally unemployed there are only in the houses or working in the farms for urban areas
As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.
However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?
What if there is no perfect competition? What if some companies have advantages - due to any of a whole array of reasons - that place them in a non-competitive position vis a vis their competitors? Without perfect competition then other companies are not necessarily able to compete with other companies that have certain advantages. If such a situation exists, then advantaged companies may have the ability to pursue a course that results in their private benefit, but not necessarily to the benefit of society as a whole. The same would apply to workers in that reduced competition among companies would result in decreased leverage for potential employees.
To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?
