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OlgaM077 [116]
3 years ago
15

A line passes through tge points (1,-3) and (4,6) what is the zero of this line ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Maru [420]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<em>The zero of the line is (2,0)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line passing through points (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) can be found as:

\displaystyle y-y_1=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}(x-x_1)

We are given the points (1,-3) and (4,6). Substituting:

\displaystyle y+3=\frac{6+3}{4-1}(x-1)

Operating:

\displaystyle y+3=\frac{9}{3}(x-1)

y+3=3(x-1)

The zero of this line can be found by making y=0 and solving for x:

0+3=3(x-1)

3=3x-3

Adding 3:

6=3x

Solving:

x = 2

The zero of the line is (2,0)

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A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
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a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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