Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
X +4=
8x=32
The answer would be, A) +$2 because he spend $12 but earned $14 so when you subtract 14 and 12 you get $2, which would be his profit
{tan(60) + tan(10)}/{1 - tan(60)*tan(10)} - {tan(60) - tan(10)}/{1 + tan(10)*tan(60)}
<span>ii) Taking LCM & simplifying with applying tan(60) = √3, the above simplifies to: </span>
<span>= 8*tan(10)/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} </span>
<span>iii) So tan(70) - tan(50) + tan(10) = 8*tan(10)/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} + tan(10) </span>
<span>= [8*tan(10) + tan(10) - 3*tan³(10)]/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} </span>
<span>= [9*tan(10) - 3*tan³(10)]/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} </span>
<span>= 3 [3*tan(10) - tan³(10)]/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} </span>
<span>= 3*tan(30) = 3*(1/√3) = √3 [Proved] </span>
<span>[Since tan(3A) = {3*tan(A) - tan³(A)}/{1 - 3*tan²(A)}, </span>
<span>{3*tan(10) - tan³(10)}/{1 - 3*tan²(10)} = tan(3*10) = tan(30)]</span>
Answer:
Hence, the probability of a Negative test is 
.
Step-by-step explanation:
(a)
Let 
Drug user and 
Test positive
Probability of drug users 
(b)
Find the Probability of a Negative test,
