when is removed from the expression derived by the mean value theorem.
Let be , for , according to the mean value theorem, also known as Rolle theorem, there is a value so that:
(1)
Where:
- First derivative evaluated at .
- Function evaluated at zero.
Then, we simplify the expression below:
Please that is equalized to because of . If we eliminate , then we find that .
We kindly invite to check this question on mean value theorem: brainly.com/question/3957181
Answer:
Gracias :)
Step-by-step explanation:
It would seem that the 25% down and 25% increase would cancel each other out and the shoes would remain $60