Answer:
use the distributive property to distribute the 8
-16+16n+3n=40+5n
-16+19n=40+5n
-16=40+5n-19n
-16=40-14n
-14n+40= -16
-14n= -16-40
-14n= -56
n= -56/-14
n= 4
"Starting with three, every consecutive line has 2 less than twice the previous line."
this statement means that
your staring line has 3 marbles. You multiply the 3 marblesby 2 so
3x2=6
And then you minus it by 2
6-2=4
which means that you'll get 4 marbles for the next line.
So to get your 6th line, you count how many marbles is on the 5th line but since your diagram doesn't have the 5th line you have to figure out the 5th line by counting how.many marbles is on the 4th line.
4th line = 10 marbles
10×2=20
20-2=18
5th line = 18
18×2=36
36-2=34
So the 6th line has 34 marbles.
Answer:
10:1
90 red counters
30 blue
1/3 of 90 =30
80% of 30 =24
90-30 =60 remaining red counters
30-24 =6 remaining blue counters
= 60:6 simplest form is 10:1
0.8p - 50 < = 150
0.8p < = 150 + 50
0.8p < = 200
p < = 200/0.8
p < = 250
the reason I set it up this way is because when it is 20% off, u r actually paying 80% of the original price (p)....80% of the original price is written as 0.8p...then u subtract ur 50 dollar discount coupon...- 50.....and if all she can spend is 150....it would be less then or equal to 150. So the most she can spend on the phone is 250
Answer:
(a) 
and 
(b) The sample variance is 
and the sample standard deviation is 
Step-by-step explanation:
(a)
The sum of these 17 sample observations is
and the sum of their squares is
(b)
The sample variance, denoted by 
, is given by
where 
Applying the above formula we get that
The sample standard deviation, denoted by <em>s</em>, is the (positive) square root of the variance:
Applying the above formula we get that
